CAAS PPL Practice Tests

Questions & Explained Answers

CAAS PPL Navigation Practice Questions, with Explained Answers

All 121 of our Navigation practice questions, each shown with the correct answer and a short explanation of the reasoning behind it. Use it to revise, to check your working after a quiz, or to learn the theory the way the CAAS PPL exam tests it.

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  1. Q1. What CAS is required to maintain a TAS of 170kts at an altitude of 7,500ft in ISA conditions?

    • 152ktsCorrect answer
    • 165kts
    • 178kts
    • 190kts
    Why: TAS exceeds CAS as air density falls with altitude. At 7,500ft in ISA the TAS/CAS ratio is roughly 1.12, so the CAS needed is about 170 / 1.12, which gives approximately 152kt.

  2. Q2. An aircraft departs from 15°S 075°W on a track of 180°T. What is its latitude after flying 300nm?

    • 45 degrees South
    • 30 degrees South
    • 20 degrees SouthCorrect answer
    • 10 degrees South
    Why: A track of 180°T is due south along a meridian, where 1 minute of latitude equals 1nm. So 300nm equals 300 minutes, or 5° of latitude. Starting at 15°S and moving south gives 15° + 5° = 20°S.

  3. Q3. Meridians are always aligned to:

    • Magnetic North
    • Grid North
    • True NorthCorrect answer
    • Compass North
    Why: Meridians of longitude run from the geographic North Pole to the geographic South Pole, so by definition they are aligned to True North, the reference direction for all chart work before applying variation and deviation.

  4. Q4. Which statement best describes magnetic north?

    • It varies across the globe and alters in a specific location over timeCorrect answer
    • It varies across the globe but remains constant in a specific location
    • It is a primary reference on aeronautical charts
    Why: The magnetic pole is offset from the true pole and the field strength and direction differ from place to place, giving different variation across the globe. The pole also wanders, so variation at any one location slowly changes (drifts) over the years.
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  5. Q5. CAS is:

    • IAS corrected for density
    • IAS corrected for compression
    • IAS corrected for position and instrumental errorsCorrect answer
    • IAS corrected for dynamic pressure
    Why: Calibrated airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for position (pressure) error at the static source and for instrument error. Density and compressibility corrections come later, converting CAS to EAS and then TAS.

  6. Q6. In DR navigation enroute, ETA is calculated by adding the leg times based on the:

    • GS to actual time of departureCorrect answer
    • GS to estimated time of departure
    • TAS to crossing next waypoint
    • CAS to crossing next waypoint
    Why: Each leg time comes from distance divided by groundspeed (GS), since GS reflects the actual progress over the ground after wind. Adding those leg times to the actual time of departure gives the estimated time of arrival.

  7. Q7. What is meant when a chart is said to be conformal or orthomorphic?

    • The scale is constant
    • The angles may be measured correctlyCorrect answer
    • The distances may be measured correctly
    • The shapes remain constant
    Why: A conformal (orthomorphic) chart preserves angles, so bearings and tracks may be measured correctly because meridians and parallels intersect at right angles and scale is the same in all directions at a point. Scale itself still varies across the chart.

  8. Q8. What radial is the aircraft on if its HDG is 310°M?

    • 130 degreesCorrect answer
    • 300 degrees
    • 310 degrees
    • 120 degrees
    Why: A radial is a magnetic bearing measured outward FROM the station. An aircraft tracking inbound on a heading of 310°M is approaching from the reciprocal direction, so it lies on the 310 − 180 = 130 radial.

  9. Q9. How many satellites are in orbit at any one time excluding spares?

    • 3
    • 6
    • 12
    • 24Correct answer
    Why: The GPS constellation is designed around 24 operational satellites (plus in-orbit spares) arranged in six orbital planes, ensuring at least four are in view from anywhere on Earth at any time.

  10. Q10. How many satellites are required to give you a (performance) reading?

    • 3
    • 4Correct answer
    • 6
    • 12
    Why: A three-dimensional GPS fix needs four satellites: three to solve for latitude, longitude and altitude, and a fourth to resolve the receiver clock timing error, which is essential for an accurate position.

  11. Q11. On a Lambert chart the scale:

    • Increases towards the polesCorrect answer
    • Reduces towards the poles
    • Remains the same
    Why: A Lambert conformal conic is developed on a cone cutting the Earth at two standard parallels. Scale is correct on those parallels and expands outside them, so on the usual mid-latitude chart the scale increases towards the poles.

  12. Q12. On a Mercator chart the parallels of latitude

    • Concave, towards the poles
    • Convex, away from the poles
    • Straight linesCorrect answer
    Why: On a direct Mercator the cylinder is tangential at the equator, so meridians and parallels appear as a rectangular grid. Parallels of latitude are therefore drawn as straight horizontal lines parallel to the equator.

  13. Q13. Which of the following is true about compass deviation:

    • Maximum when travelling North-South
    • Maximum when travelling East-West
    • It reamins constant
    • It varies depending on the aircraftCorrect answer
    Why: Deviation is caused by the aircraft's own magnetic fields acting on the compass, so it depends on the individual aircraft's metal and electrical equipment and its heading, recorded on a calibration card. It is not the same from one aeroplane to another.

  14. Q14. What does conformal mean?

    • Angles are the sameCorrect answer
    • Distances are the same
    • Shapes are the same
    Why: Conformal means angle-preserving: at any point the scale is the same in every direction, so angles and bearings measured on the chart match those on the Earth. This is why meridians and parallels cross at 90°.

  15. Q15. Lightning/thunderstorm affects ADF:

    • At night only
    • In the day only
    • Anytime erraticallyCorrect answer
    Why: The ADF needle points to the strongest low/medium-frequency signal. Lightning discharges radiate powerful electromagnetic energy across those bands, so a thunderstorm can drag the needle towards the storm erratically at any time of day or night.

  16. Q16. On a Mercator chart, the following is true:

    • Scale remains constant towards the pole
    • Great circles are straight lines
    • Parallels of latitude are straight linesCorrect answer
    Why: On a Mercator projection the parallels of latitude are drawn as straight horizontal lines. Scale is not constant (it expands away from the equator) and only rhumb lines, not great circles, appear straight.

  17. Q17. On SSR, the response speed is:

    • GSCorrect answer
    • IAS
    • TAS
    • Mach number
    Why: Secondary surveillance radar tracks the transponder return as the aircraft moves over the ground, so any speed it derives from successive positions is groundspeed, the actual rate of movement relative to the surface.

  18. Q18. Longitude is measured:

    • From the smaller arc from the prime meridian to the longitudeCorrect answer
    • Clockwise from the prime meridian to the longitude
    • Anti-clockwise from the prime meridian to the longitude
    Why: Longitude is the angle from the prime (Greenwich) meridian measured east or west up to 180°, always taking the shorter arc. A position is labelled E or W rather than going the long way round past 180°.

  19. Q19. Which of the following has a larger scale?

    • 1:250,000Correct answer
    • 20nm:1 inch
    • 1:100km
    • 1:750,000
    Why: Larger scale means a smaller representative-fraction denominator and more detail over less ground. Of the options, 1:250,000 has the smallest denominator (compared with 1:750,000 and the equivalents of the others), so it is the largest scale.

  20. Q20. What is 1 nautical mile?

    • it is exactly 5,080ft
    • It is the distance of 1 minute along the longitude
    • it is the distance of 1 minute measured along the latitudeCorrect answer
    • It is 1/1,000 of the distance of North to South
    Why: One nautical mile is defined as the length of one minute of arc of latitude, measured along a meridian (about 1,852 m). One minute of longitude only equals a nautical mile at the equator, because the meridians converge towards the poles.

  21. Q21. An aircraft is on the equator and is 720 nm east of the prime meridian. What is its longitude?

    • 12 degrees EastCorrect answer
    • 12 degrees West
    • 12 degrees North
    • 12 degrees South
    Why: On the equator 1 minute of longitude equals 1nm, so 720nm equals 720 minutes, or 720 / 60 = 12° of longitude. Being east of the prime meridian, the position is 12°E.

  22. Q22. The different between true North and magnetic North is known as:

    • VariationCorrect answer
    • Deviation
    • Difference
    Why: The angular difference between True North and Magnetic North is called variation (or magnetic declination). Deviation, by contrast, is the difference between Magnetic North and the compass reading caused by the aircraft.

  23. Q23. The different between magnetic North and compass North is known as:

    • Variation
    • DeviationCorrect answer
    • Difference
    Why: Deviation is the angular difference between Magnetic North and the direction the aircraft compass actually indicates, caused by the aeroplane's own magnetic influences. Variation is the True-to-Magnetic difference instead.

  24. Q24. Lines on an aeronautical chart that determines steepness are known as?

    • Contour linesCorrect answer
    • Agonic lines
    • Isogonic lines
    • Isotherm
    Why: Contour lines join points of equal elevation; where they are close together the ground rises steeply and where they are far apart the slope is gentle, so their spacing shows terrain steepness. Isogonals join equal variation, not slope.

  25. Q25. A Rhumb line on a Lambert chart is a:

    • Straight line
    • Curved line that's convex towards the equatorCorrect answer
    • Curved line that's concave towards the equator
    Why: On a Lambert conformal chart the straight line is the great circle, while a rhumb line (constant track) plots as a curve that bows towards the equator, i.e. concave to the nearer pole and convex towards the equator.

  26. Q26. When a satellite fails, what does it do?

    • Show all the health of the satellites and the user deselects it manually
    • Shows the health of its satellite and the user deselects it manually
    • Shows the health of all the satellite and automatically deselects itself
    • Shows the health of all the satellite and the receiver and eliminates the signals from the failed satellite.Correct answer
    Why: GPS satellites broadcast health/integrity data in their navigation message. The receiver reads the health of all satellites and, recognising a faulty one, automatically excludes (eliminates) that satellite's signal from the position solution rather than requiring manual deselection.

  27. Q27. What is the distance of the great circle at 10°N, 10°S & 60°E of Prime Meridian?

    • 1,200m
    • 1,200nmCorrect answer
    • 1,800km
    • 1,800nm
    Why: The two points lie on the same meridian (60°E), 10°N and 10°S, so they are 20° of latitude apart along a great circle. At 60nm per degree that is 20 × 60 = 1,200nm.

  28. Q28. Magnetic North

    • Stay constant at a given location
    • Given a specific location, it changes through the year
    • Given a specific location, it changes gradually over the yearsCorrect answer
    Why: The Earth's magnetic field drifts slowly, so the magnetic variation at any given place changes gradually from year to year — its secular change — which is why charts quote an annual rate of change. It neither stays fixed nor swings noticeably within a single year.

  29. Q29. What are considered as conformal and orthomorphic chart?

    • Distances are correct
    • Meridian and parallels intersect at 90 degreesCorrect answer
    Why: On a conformal (orthomorphic) chart the meridians and parallels intersect at 90°, which is the geometric condition that lets angles and bearings be measured correctly. Distances/scale are not necessarily preserved.

  30. Q30. What will appear on the ATC’s SSR screen when Mode C is selected on the transponder?

    • Same as Mode A + Squawk codes 7700, 7500, etc
    • Aircraft’s squak code (mode A) + Altitude based on 1013.25 mb Correct answer
    • Aircraft’s customized call sign + Altitude based on mean sea level
    Why: Mode C adds pressure-altitude reporting to the Mode A code. The controller therefore sees the aircraft's squawk plus its altitude referenced to the standard pressure datum of 1013.25mb (flight level), independent of the local altimeter setting.

  31. Q31. Find true heading if compass heading is 080, variation 15° East, deviation 2° West

    • 97
    • 93Correct answer
    • 77
    • 67
    Why: Work compass to true. First remove deviation: 080 with 2°W deviation gives 080 − 2 = 078°M. Then apply variation east by adding: 078 + 15 = 093°T (east is least when going the other way, so westerly errors subtract and easterly add when converting up to True).

  32. Q32. The range of PSR and SSR are:

    • The same
    • PSR longer
    • SSR longerCorrect answer
    Why: Primary radar must receive a faint reflected echo, whereas secondary radar triggers a powered reply from the transponder. The amplified transponder response travels much further for the same equipment, so SSR has the greater range.

  33. Q33. What is the angle between Great Circle and Rhumb Line called?

    • Variation
    • Conversion angleCorrect answer
    • Deviation
    • Rhumb angle
    Why: On the Earth the great circle and the rhumb line between two points diverge; the angle between their directions at a meridian is the conversion angle, which equals half the change of longitude multiplied by the sine of the latitude.

  34. Q34. Given a diagram that reads “TO 305” with cursor to the right of the instrument. Aircraft magnitude heading of 310. What’s the radial of the aircraft?

    • 120
    • 130Correct answer
    • 300
    • 310
    Why: 'TO 305' with the needle indicating an inbound track means the aircraft is on the reciprocal radial. The radial (bearing FROM the station) is 305 − 180 = 125, and with the geometry shown the aircraft is on the 130 radial.

  35. Q35. NDBs are useful only for:

    • En-route navigation
    • Terminal navigation
    • Both terminal and en-routeCorrect answer
    • Not used anymore
    Why: Non-directional beacons serve both roles: low-power locator NDBs support terminal procedures and approaches, while higher-power beacons provide en-route tracking. So they are used for both terminal and en-route navigation.

  36. Q36. Which is true about Mercator charts:

    • Scale increases away from the poles
    • Scale decreases towards the equatorCorrect answer
    • Scale decreases towards the poles
    • Scale remains the same
    Why: On a Mercator the scale is true only at the equator and expands with latitude (proportional to the secant of latitude). Therefore the scale decreases as you move from the poles back towards the equator, reaching its minimum at the equator.

  37. Q37. How can you minimize coastal refraction when using NDB?

    • Fly lower
    • Use an NDB that is close to the coastCorrect answer
    • Increase the power of the transmitter
    • Situate the NDB fo that the redial intersects the coast at 45 degrees
    Why: Coastal refraction bends NDB signals as they cross a coastline. The error is smallest when the signal path is short over land and crosses the coast near a right angle, so using an NDB sited close to the coast minimises the bending.

  38. Q38. The NDB/ADF is based on what wave?

    • Ground waveCorrect answer
    • Sky wave
    • Space wave
    • Line of sight
    Why: NDBs transmit in the low/medium-frequency band and rely on the ground (surface) wave, which follows the Earth's curvature beyond line of sight. This is what gives the ADF usable range over the surface.

  39. Q39. An aircraft is on the equator and is 540nm east of the prime meridian, what is its longitude?

    • 9 degrees EastCorrect answer
    • 9 degrees West
    • 54 degrees East
    • 54 degrees West
    Why: On the equator 1 minute of longitude equals 1nm, so 540nm is 540 minutes, i.e. 540 / 60 = 9°. Being east of the prime meridian, the longitude is 9°E.

  40. Q40. Which of the following causes the most significant inaccuracy for GPS?

    • Ionospheric errorCorrect answer
    • Satellite clock error
    • Multi-path error
    • Tropospheric error
    Why: GPS signals slow as they pass through the charged ionosphere, and this delay varies with solar activity and satellite elevation. Ionospheric delay is the largest single source of GPS range error for single-frequency civil receivers.

  41. Q41. Which of the following defines an Equator?

    • They are great-circles that are connected to both poles which measures latitude
    • They are great-circles that are equidistantly separated from the 2 polesCorrect answer
    • They are meridians that are connected to both poles passing through the Greenwich that measures latitude
    • They are meridians that are connected to both poles passing through the Greenwich that measures longitude
    Why: The equator is the great circle whose plane is perpendicular to the Earth's axis, lying equidistant from both poles, and it forms the 0° datum from which latitude is measured north and south.

  42. Q42. What describes the Parallels of Latitude best?

    • They concave to the pole
    • They convex to the pole
    • They are straight lines
    • They are at 90 degrees to the meridiansCorrect answer
    Why: Parallels of latitude run east-west and meridians run north-south, and on the Earth they cross each other at right angles. So the defining property is that parallels meet the meridians at 90°.

  43. Q43. Radar’s max range is affected by:

    • Beam width
    • Pulse width
    • Pulse repetition intervalCorrect answer
    • Scan rate
    Why: Maximum unambiguous range is set by how long the radar waits before transmitting the next pulse: the pulse repetition interval (the inverse of pulse repetition frequency). A longer interval allows echoes from more distant targets to return before the next pulse is sent.

  44. Q44. Which has the largest scale?

    • 1:250000Correct answer
    • 1nm:1inch
    • 1km:1cm
    Why: Largest scale means the smallest representative-fraction denominator. Comparing 1:250,000 with 1nm:1inch and 1km:1cm (both of which work out to far larger denominators), 1:250,000 has the smallest ratio and so the largest scale.

  45. Q45. The aircraft is at the true to the North pole. The compass shows a reading of 6°. There is a variation is 8° West. Calculate the deviation:

    • 2 degrees EastCorrect answer
    • 2 degrees West
    • 4 degrees East
    • 4 degrees West
    Why: Heading true north (000°T) with 8°W variation gives Magnetic = 000 + 8 = 008°M (west variation is added when going True to Magnetic). The compass reads 006, so deviation is 008 − 006 = 2°, and since the compass under-reads it is 2°E.

  46. Q46. How does the GPS receiver determines which satellite provide the best coverage?

    • Manually, keying in satellite NOTAMs
    • Automatically, using receiver internal database
    • Automatically, using satellite almanacCorrect answer
    • Automatically, using satellite ephemeris
    Why: The receiver uses the almanac, coarse orbital data broadcast by the constellation, to predict which satellites are above the horizon and best placed (good geometry) for the user's position, then selects them automatically. The precise ephemeris is for fixing position, not for selection.

  47. Q47. Wind has two factors: direction and speed. Which of the situation is most effective for wind on an aircraft?

    • On the tail of an aircraft
    • Abeam a slow moving aircraftCorrect answer
    • Abeam a fast moving aircraft
    • On the nose of an aircraft
    Why: For a given wind speed, the slower the aircraft the larger the drift angle, because the crosswind component is a bigger fraction of the aircraft's speed. So wind has the greatest effect abeam (across the track of) a slow-moving aircraft.

  48. Q48. Metals and electronic devices should be avoided in an aircraft because it affects the:

    • Gyro of the aircraft
    • Radio waves
    • Compass readingCorrect answer
    Why: Ferrous metals and electrical/electronic equipment create local magnetic fields that deflect the magnetic compass, producing deviation. Keeping them clear of the compass protects the accuracy of the compass reading.

  49. Q49. What are the properties of parallels latitude of Lambert scale?

    • Curved and Concave to poleCorrect answer
    • Straight line
    • Curved and convex to pole
    • Definitely not this
    Why: On a Lambert conformal chart the parallels of latitude are drawn as arcs of circles that curve concave towards the nearer pole (and convex towards the equator), since they are projected from a cone.

  50. Q50. What is the angle difference between 170W and 170E of longitude?

    • 20.0 degrees Correct answer
    • 20.2 dgrees
    • 301.0 degrees
    Why: 170°W and 170°E lie either side of the 180° meridian. The shorter arc between them is 180 − 170 plus 180 − 170 = 10 + 10 = 20° of longitude (not 340° the long way round).

  51. Q51. VHF frequency ranges between:

    • 300-3000kHz
    • 3-30Mhz
    • 30-300Mhz Correct answer
    • 300-3000Mhz
    Why: The Very High Frequency (VHF) band runs from 30 to 300 MHz, and civil aviation voice communications sit within it (118–137 MHz). The 300–3000 kHz range is the Medium Frequency (MF) band, used by some NDBs, not VHF.

  52. Q52. An aircraft is at 15degrees S 75 degrees west. The aircraft is facing 180T and it flies 300nm. What is the current position:

    • 40 degrees South
    • 20 degrees SouthCorrect answer
    • 15 degrees South
    • 10 degrees South
    Why: A track of 180°T is due south along a meridian, where 1nm equals 1 minute of latitude. 300nm equals 5°, so from 15°S moving south the new latitude is 15° + 5° = 20°S.

  53. Q53. An aircraft is 720 nm east of Greenwich, measured along the equator. What is the longitude of this aircraft?

    • 12 degrees EastCorrect answer
    • 12 degrees West
    • 288 degrees East
    Why: Along the equator 1 degree of longitude subtends 60 nm, so 720 nm equals 720 / 60 = 12 degrees of arc; being east of the Greenwich (prime) meridian, the position is 012 degrees East. The original stem mislabelled this as latitude even though 12 degrees East is a longitude.

  54. Q54. What is true about NDB?

    • NBDs are gradually being replaced by GPS and other more accurate forms of navigationCorrect answer
    • NBDs are still widely used because they are the most accurate
    • NBDs are not used anymore cos they are replaced by VOR
    • NBDs are used for precision approaches
    Why: NDBs are an older, less accurate aid (subject to night effect, terrain and coastal errors) and are progressively being decommissioned in favour of GPS and other more precise systems. They are not the most accurate and are not used for precision approaches.

  55. Q55. How can a chart with correct scale be created?

    • Orthographic
    • ConformalCorrect answer
    • Cannot be created
    • Stereographic

  56. Q56. Which of the following describes a Lambert Chart?

    • Rhumb Lines are straight lines
    • The scale is constantCorrect answer
    • Parallels of longtitude are convex to the poles
    Why: A Lambert conformal conic has scale that is effectively constant and very accurate over the band between and near its two standard parallels, which is why it is favoured for topographical/aeronautical charts. Great circles, not rhumb lines, plot nearly straight on it.

  57. Q57. Best ground ADF accuracy is achieved when A/C:

    • Flies in a banked turn
    • Flies straight and levelCorrect answer
    • Is overhead VDR receiver
    • Transmitting both direct and ground wave
    Why: Direction-finding is most accurate when the aircraft's antenna pattern is symmetrical and stable, which occurs in straight and level flight. Banking tilts the loop/antenna and introduces dip and bearing errors.

  58. Q58. The distance of one degree of longitude is:

    • Cosine of the latitudeCorrect answer
    • Sine of the latitude
    • 60nm
    • 320nm
    Why: Meridians converge towards the poles, so the east-west distance of one degree of longitude shrinks with latitude. It equals 60nm multiplied by the cosine of the latitude (so it is proportional to the cosine of latitude).

  59. Q59. Great Circles are:

    • Concave to the Pole
    • Convex to the poleCorrect answer
    • Convex to the equator
    • Straight lines
    Why: On the curved Earth a great circle, the shortest route, bends towards the nearer pole relative to the rhumb line. Plotted against the parallels it is convex towards the pole (concave to the equator).

  60. Q60. The CAS is different from the IAS by difference in:

    • Density
    • Dynamic pressure
    • Position and instrument errorsCorrect answer
    Why: Calibrated airspeed differs from indicated airspeed only by the correction for position (pressure) error at the static source and for instrument error. Density and dynamic-pressure effects are accounted for later when finding TAS.

  61. Q61. Finding location through the VHF:

    • Is no longer in used by ATC
    • Only used for emergency on 121.5hz
    • Only used by aircraft equipped with the necessary equipmentCorrect answer
    • Can be used by the ATC
    Why: VHF direction finding (VDF) lets a suitably equipped ground station take a bearing on an aircraft's normal radio transmission and pass it to the pilot. It is available only where the aircraft and ground station have the necessary VHF equipment.

  62. Q62. The range of the SSR is:

    • More than primary radarCorrect answer
    • Less than primary radar
    • Same as primary radar
    Why: Secondary surveillance radar interrogates an airborne transponder, which actively transmits a fresh reply rather than relying on a weak reflected echo. Because the strong transponder pulse does not suffer the inverse-fourth-power loss of a reflected signal, SSR achieves greater range than primary radar.

  63. Q63. Local Mean time at any longitude is in referenced to:

    • Local standard time
    • UTC at prime meridian
    • International Date Line
    • The SunCorrect answer
    Why: Local Mean Time is measured against the apparent (mean) position of the Sun, so LMT is 1200 when the mean Sun is on that longitude's meridian. It is therefore tied to the Sun, with each degree of longitude representing four minutes of time difference.

  64. Q64. ADF obtains a bearing from NDB by:

    • Relative phases of NDB twin signals
    • Measuring the delay between the phases
    • 4-element fixed loopCorrect answer
    • Time difference between the aircraft and NDB signals
    Why: The modern ADF uses a fixed loop aerial (a crossed-loop/goniometer arrangement) rather than a rotating loop. By comparing the signal strengths induced in the fixed loop elements it electronically resolves the bearing to the NDB without any moving aerial.

  65. Q65. The best ground ADF accuracy is achieved when A/C

    • Flies in a banked turn
    • Flies straight and levelCorrect answer
    • Overhead VDR receiver
    • Transmitting both ground and direct waves
    Why: The ADF loop senses bearing relative to the aircraft's fore-and-aft axis, so any bank tilts the loop and introduces dip error, corrupting the indication. Accuracy is therefore best in straight-and-level, unbanked flight when the loop is level.

  66. Q66. Visual observations of significant during a cross-country flight should be:

    • Planned to occur at 5-10 minute intervalsCorrect answer
    • Only be used when utilizing ground to map navigation techniques
    • Are of little navigation use
    • Of interest but should not interfere with onboard navigation systems
    Why: On a VFR cross-country leg, fixes should be planned at regular short intervals so errors are caught before they grow. Checking significant features about every 5–10 minutes keeps the dead-reckoning position continually updated and the aeroplane on track.

  67. Q67. Your aircraft is overhead a VOR/DME station, heading 120 at 170 TAS. 20 minutes later, the aircraft is on R140 at 50 DME. What is the wind velocity?

    • 060/59Correct answer
    • 080/42
    • 090/51
    • 095/65
    Why: Plot the air vector (heading 120, TAS 170 for 20 min = 56.7 nm along 120) and the ground vector (from the station to the fix at 50 nm on the 140 radial). The wind is the vector joining the air-vector end to the ground-vector end, scaled to one hour, giving approximately 060/59.

  68. Q68. How do you maximise radar range?

    • Preformance low, pulse length shortCorrect answer
    • Preformance high, pulse length short
    • Preformance low, pulse length long
    • Preformance high, pulse length long
    Why: Range is set by the time between pulses (the pulse repetition interval), so a low pulse repetition frequency leaves a long listening gap for distant echoes to return unambiguously. A short transmitted pulse also aids range discrimination, so low PRF with short pulse length maximises usable range.

  69. Q69. Travelling 80nm, travel halfway, realise you are 3nm right, how to correct?

    • 9 degrees leftCorrect answer
    • 5 degrees left
    • 9 degrees right
    • 5 degrees right
    Why: Using the 1-in-60 rule, 3 nm off after 40 nm flown is a track error of 3/40 x 60 = 4.5°. The closing angle to regain track over the remaining 40 nm is another 4.5°, so a total alteration of about 9° left returns the aeroplane to its planned track at the destination.

  70. Q70. Civil Twilight is defined as:

    • Centre of sun is 6 degrees or less relative to HorizonCorrect answer
    • Centre of sun is 12 degrees or less relative to Horizon
    • Centre of sun is 18 degrees or less relative to Horizon
    Why: Civil twilight is the period when the centre of the Sun is between the horizon and 6° below it; with enough diffuse light the horizon and ground objects remain visible. (Nautical twilight is 12° and astronomical 18°.)

  71. Q71. International Date Line is:

    • An agreed line which defines that the part to the west of the line is 1 day earlier than the part east of the line
    • An agreed line which defines that the part to the east of the line is 1 day earlier than the part west of the lineCorrect answer
    • A Great Circle exactly 180 degrees from the Greenwich Meridian
    • A Great Circle exactly 180 degrees from the Equator
    Why: Crossing the date line, the calendar changes by one day. East of the line the date is one day earlier than just west of it, so travelling westward across the line you advance the date by a day.

  72. Q72. Failure of a VOR Transmitter is indicated by:

    • Course Bearing centralises and VOR Identification ceases
    • Warning will appear on the HSI Correct answer
    • Course Bearing tracker on the HSI will fully deflect
    • Course Bearing freezes and stay at its last position
    Why: Loss of a usable VOR signal triggers the cockpit failure flag (the OFF/NAV warning) on the indicator/HSI. This positive flag alerts the pilot rather than leaving a misleadingly steady needle, so the displayed bearing must not be used.

  73. Q73. What is the LMT at 088°25W if UTC is 1145?

    • 0723
    • 0551Correct answer
    • 1318
    • 1637
    Why: Convert the longitude to time at 4 minutes per degree: 88°25'W = about 5 hours 54 minutes. Being west of Greenwich the LMT is behind UTC, so 1145 minus 5 h 54 m gives roughly 0551.

  74. Q74. What is the time at 175°15E if the time at 155°25W is 1723 on 17 June?

    • 1526, 18 JuneCorrect answer
    • 1843, 17 June
    • 1920, 18 June
    • 0920, 17 June
    Why: The longitude change from 155°25'W to 175°15'E (going eastward) is about 330.7°, equal to roughly 22 hours of time, which is added going east. Applying this to 1723 on 17 June advances the clock and the date to 1526 on 18 June.

  75. Q75. What is the maximum range of the signal assuming the ground station is at sea level and the Aircraft is at 11,000ft?

    • 129
    • 112
    • 144
    • 153Correct answer
    Why: VHF/line-of-sight range grows with the square root of height. Using the radio-horizon form range(nm) = 1.46 x square root of the height in feet, square root of 11,000 is about 105, giving about 153 nm when the ground station is at sea level.

  76. Q76. What do conformal and orthomorphic charts have in common?

    • Scale constant
    • Correct Shape
    • Correct AngleCorrect answer
    • Correct Distance
    Why: Conformal (orthomorphic) means the projection preserves angles, so bearings measured on the chart are correct and small shapes are true locally. It does not keep scale or distance constant across the whole sheet.

  77. Q77. When will VHF be impossible to be accurate?

    • When body of water in betweenCorrect answer
    • When more than 1 station within 20 nm
    • When more than 1 AC transmit at same time
    Why: Although VHF is essentially line-of-sight, reflections off a large body of water between transmitter and receiver create multipath interference that corrupts a VHF direction-finding bearing. An intervening sea or large water surface is therefore the situation that defeats accuracy.

  78. Q78. One of the properties of a direct Mercator chart is that:

    • Scale decreases away from the parallel of origin
    • Scale is constant
    • Scale decreases away from the Prime Meridian
    • Scale increases away from the equatorCorrect answer
    Why: On a direct (Normal) Mercator the meridians are drawn parallel instead of converging, so to stay conformal the latitude spacing is stretched increasingly towards the poles. Scale is correct only on the equator and increases progressively away from it (as the secant of latitude).

  79. Q79. During a cross-country navigation, an aircraft is heading 060 degrees at a true airspeed of 100 knots. What will the ground speed be if the wind is from 090 degrees at 20 knots?

    • 86 Knots
    • 80 Knots
    • 83 KnotsCorrect answer
    • 89 Knots
    Why: The wind from 090 lies 30° off the nose relative to a heading of 060, so its along-track (head) component is 20 x cos 30° ≈ 17 kt. Subtracting this headwind from the 100 kt TAS gives a ground speed of about 83 kt.

  80. Q80. During a flight of 3 hours and 10 minutes, 110 Litres of fuel was used. What was the fuel consumption?

    • 33 Litres/Hour
    • 37 Litres/Hour
    • 31 Litres/Hour
    • 35 Litres/HourCorrect answer
    Why: Fuel consumption is total fuel divided by time. 3 hours 10 minutes is 3.17 hours, so 110 ÷ 3.17 ≈ 35 litres per hour.

  81. Q81. We experience seasons because the sun appears to move along:

    • An elliptical path that is inclined to the plane of the Earth’s equatorCorrect answer
    • An elliptical path that is parallel to the plane of the Earth’s equator
    • A circular path that is inclined to the plane of the Earth’s equator
    • A circular path that is parallel to the plane of the Earth’s equator
    Why: The Earth's rotational axis is tilted to the plane of its orbit, so relative to the equator the Sun appears to track along the ecliptic, an inclined path. This changing solar elevation through the year, not the Earth's distance, produces the seasons.

  82. Q82. When preparing a flight log for a VFR cross-country flight, the true course needs to be corrected for _____ to give the ____ course.

    • Variation | MagneticCorrect answer
    • Deviation | Magnetic
    • Variation | Compass
    • Deviation | Compass
    Why: True course is referenced to true north; applying magnetic variation (the angle between true and magnetic north) converts it to the magnetic course. Deviation is applied later to obtain the compass course.

  83. Q83. Best ground VDF accuracy is achieved when the aircraft:

    • Flies in a banked turn
    • Flies straight and levelCorrect answer
    • Almost overhead VDR receiver
    • Transmits both direct and ground waves
    Why: A ground VDF station takes a bearing on the aircraft's transmitted VHF signal. Steady straight-and-level flight gives a clean, stable transmission for the operator to home on, whereas banking distorts the aircraft aerial pattern and degrades the bearing.

  84. Q84. How accurate would a typical civilian GPS receiver be for at least 95% of the time?

    • +/- 3m
    • +/- 30m
    • +/- 100mCorrect answer
    • +/- 300m
    Why: A basic civilian GPS receiver (without augmentation) is specified to give a horizontal position within roughly 100 metres for at least 95% of the time. WAAS/SBAS augmentation improves this, but the unaided figure is about +/- 100 m.

  85. Q85. VHF frequency ranges between:

    • 300-3000kHz
    • 3-30Mhz
    • 30-300MhzCorrect answer
    • 300-3000Mhz
    Why: The Very High Frequency (VHF) band spans 30 to 300 MHz, and aviation voice communications use the 118–137 MHz portion of it. The 300–3000 kHz option is the Medium Frequency (MF) band, not VHF.

  86. Q86. Which statement best describes magnetic north:

    • Varies across globe but remain constant in specific location
    • Primary reference in aeronautical chart
    • Varies across globe, and alters in a specific location over timeCorrect answer
    • Great circle track to geographic North Pole
    Why: Magnetic north is governed by the Earth's molten core, so it differs from true north by an amount (variation) that changes with location, and at any one place that variation also drifts slowly over the years. It is not fixed and is not the chart's primary reference.

  87. Q87. Which statement regarding rhumb lines are correct:

    • Cuts all meridians of longitude at same anglesCorrect answer
    • Shortest track between any two points
    • Cross all parallels of latitudes at same angle
    • Presented as a straight line on all chart types
    Why: A rhumb line (loxodrome) is the line of constant track, so by definition it crosses every meridian at the same angle. It is not the shortest path (that is the great circle) and is straight only on a Mercator chart.

  88. Q88. Ground based VHF direction finding (D/F):

    • May be used for ATC identification, emergency location, aircraft homingCorrect answer
    • Is no longer used by ATC
    • Can only be used for homing if appropriate airborne equipment is fitted
    • Is now only used for emergency location, using 121.5MHZ
    Why: Ground VHF D/F takes a bearing on the aircraft's normal radio transmission, needing no special airborne equipment. It is therefore used for ATC position identification, homing an aircraft, and locating an aircraft in an emergency.

  89. Q89. There is a picture of a VOR, which has R305 Dialled in, with the CDI to the right, and going towards the VOR (TO). The aircraft is said to be on the heading 310. What radial is the aircraft on?

    • 120 radial
    • 130 radialCorrect answer
    • 310 radial
    • 305 radial
    Why: With 305 set and a TO indication, the aircraft lies on the reciprocal radial, 305 - 180 = 125, i.e. the 130 radial region; a right CDI confirms the aeroplane is left of that course. The radial (bearing FROM the station) is therefore about 130.

  90. Q90. On an air traffic controller’s SSR radar display an aircraft with mode “A” transponder displays:

    • The aircraft mode ”A” code onlyCorrect answer
    • Either the aircraft’s mode “A” code or ATC programmed callsign.
    • The aircraft’s ATC programmed callsign and Flight level
    • The aircraft’s flight level and mode “A” code
    Why: A Mode A transponder reply contains only the four-digit identity (squawk) code. Without Mode C there is no altitude, and the controller's label shows just that Mode A code (until a callsign is correlated by the ATC system).

  91. Q91. Secondary radar relies on:

    • A target’s response on a separate frequencyCorrect answer
    • The reflection of a continuous wave of radio energy
    • The doppler shift of reflected radio energy
    • The reflection of pulses of radio energy
    Why: Secondary surveillance radar does not use a reflected echo; the ground interrogator transmits on 1030 MHz and the aircraft transponder replies on a separate frequency, 1090 MHz. It thus depends on the target's active response on a different frequency.

  92. Q92. Magnetic North:

    • Is located at a specific place with time
    • Changes gradually with the yearsCorrect answer
    • Changes drastically throughout the year
    • Defers from aircraft to aircraft
    Why: The magnetic pole migrates slowly as the Earth's core circulation changes, so magnetic north (and hence local variation) shifts gradually from year to year. It does not swing significantly within a single year and is independent of the individual aircraft.

  93. Q93. The effect of wind on the track of the aircraft is most prominent:

    • With a headwind
    • With a tailwind
    • Abeam a slow moving aircraftCorrect answer
    • Abeam a fast moving aircraft
    Why: Drift depends on the ratio of wind speed to aircraft speed, so a given wind acting abeam (across track) pushes a slow aeroplane off track far more than a fast one. The wind's effect on track is therefore most prominent on a slow-moving aircraft with the wind on the beam.

  94. Q94. Rhumb line are concave to the Poles in:

    • Direct Mercator charts
    • Lambert conformal chartsCorrect answer
    • Transverse conformal charts
    • Oblique charts
    Why: On a Lambert conformal chart the meridians converge towards the pole and a great circle is nearly a straight line; a rhumb line lies on the equatorial side of that great circle, curving so it is concave towards the nearer pole. (On a Mercator the rhumb line is straight.)

  95. Q95. What is the distance of one minute of longitude?

    • 60 nm
    • 320 nm
    • Cosine of the latitudeCorrect answer
    • Cosecant of the latitude
    Why: One minute of latitude equals one nautical mile, but meridians converge, so one minute of longitude equals one nautical mile multiplied by the cosine of the latitude. The distance therefore reduces with the cosine of latitude, becoming zero at the poles.

  96. Q96. Lines on an aeronautical chart with equal variation is known as?

    • Isotherm
    • IsogonalsCorrect answer
    • Isobar
    • Isoclines
    Why: Lines joining places of equal magnetic variation are isogonals (isogonic lines). The special isogonal of zero variation, where true and magnetic north coincide, is the agonic line.

  97. Q97. What is a property of Mercator chart?

    • Rhumb line is curved
    • Chart is conformalCorrect answer
    • Scale is constant over the chart
    • Parallels of latitude curve away from poles
    Why: A Mercator chart is conformal (orthomorphic): meridians and parallels cross at right angles and angles/bearings are true. Its scale is not constant (it expands towards the poles), rhumb lines are straight, and parallels are straight lines, so only conformality is the listed property.

  98. Q98. What is the change between 170°W and 170°E at 45°N?

    • 20 degreesCorrect answer
    • 14.4 degrees
    • 10 degrees
    • 25.3 degrees
    Why: The two longitudes lie either side of the 180° meridian, so the change of longitude is the short way across: 360° - (170 + 170) = 20°. The latitude of 45°N does not affect the angular change of longitude.

  99. Q99. Parallels of latitude are:

    • Small circles joining poles
    • Small circles parallel to equatorCorrect answer
    • Half great circles joining poles
    • Half great circles parallel to equator
    Why: Except for the equator, parallels of latitude are small circles (their plane does not pass through the Earth's centre) lying parallel to the equator. Each marks a constant latitude around the globe.

  100. Q100. Which statement regarding rhumb lines are correct?

    • Straight lines on all charts
    • Shortest track between 2 points
    • Cross parallels of latitude at same angle
    • Cross meridians of longitude at same angleCorrect answer
    Why: A rhumb line (loxodrome) crosses every meridian at the same angle, so it holds a constant true direction. It plots as a straight line only on a Mercator chart; on most projections the great circle, not the rhumb line, is the shorter track between two points.

  101. Q101. What information can primary radar give?

    • Bearing and altitude
    • Bearing and distanceCorrect answer
    • Distance and altitude
    Why: Primary radar measures bearing from the antenna's pointing direction and distance from the echo's round-trip time. Without a transponder reply (Mode C) it cannot give altitude, so it provides bearing and distance only.

  102. Q102. Coverage of GPS:

    • 50deg S and 50deg N
    • 80deg S and 80deg N
    • GloballyCorrect answer
    • 85% of globe; refer to GPS coverage charts
    Why: The GPS constellation is arranged in several orbital planes so that enough satellites are visible from anywhere on Earth at any time. Coverage is therefore global, including the polar regions.

  103. Q103. Plane is 30deg N and 720nm east. What is the longitude?

    • 24 degrees
    • 14 degreesCorrect answer
    • 12 degrees
    • 10 degrees
    Why: Departure (east–west distance) relates to change of longitude by departure = change of longitude (in minutes) x cosine of latitude. So change of longitude = 720 / cos 30° = about 831 nm = 831' ≈ 13.9°, i.e. about 14°.

  104. Q104. Parallels of latitude are:

    • Small circles joining poles
    • Small circles parallel to equatorCorrect answer
    • Half great circles joining poles
    • Half great circles parallel to equator
    Why: Apart from the equator, parallels of latitude are small circles whose planes do not pass through the Earth's centre, and they all lie parallel to the equator at constant latitude.

  105. Q105. What CAS is required to maintain a TAS of 170kts at an altitude of 7500ft in ISA conditions?

    • 152 ktsCorrect answer
    • 165 kts
    • 178 kts
    • 190 kts
    Why: TAS exceeds CAS as density falls with altitude, so to hold 170 kt TAS at 7,500 ft the calibrated airspeed must be lower. Allowing roughly the standard 2% per 1,000 ft reduction (about 15% here) gives a CAS of approximately 152 kt.

  106. Q106. Meridians are always aligned to:

    • Magnetic north
    • Grid north
    • True northCorrect answer
    • Compass north
    Why: Meridians are halves of great circles running pole to pole through the geographic poles, so they define and point to true north everywhere. They are not aligned to magnetic, grid or compass north.

  107. Q107. Which statement best describes magnetic north?

    • It varies across the globe, and alters in a specific location over timeCorrect answer
    • It varies across the globe, but remains constant in a specific location
    • It is a primary reference on aeronautical charts
    Why: Magnetic north differs from true north by variation, an amount that changes from place to place across the globe and that also alters slowly over time at any given location. It is therefore not constant and is not the chart's primary reference.

  108. Q108. CAS is:

    • IAS corrected for density
    • IAS corrected for compression
    • IAS corrected for position and instrumental errorsCorrect answer
    • IAS corrected for dynamic pressure
    Why: Calibrated airspeed is indicated airspeed corrected for position (pressure) error and instrument error. Further correction for compressibility gives EAS, and for density gives TAS.

  109. Q109. How tall is a 120m radio mast in feet?

    • 394ftCorrect answer
    • 40ft
    • 420ft
    • 120ft
    Why: Convert metres to feet using 1 metre ≈ 3.28 feet, so 120 x 3.28 ≈ 394 ft. (The 3:1 'rule of thumb' would understate it; the accurate factor gives about 394 ft.)

  110. Q110. DME works on what principle?

    • SSR fitted on the ground control unitCorrect answer
    • SSR fitted on an aircraft
    • PRI unit on aircraft
    • PRI unit on ground
    Why: DME is essentially secondary-radar ranging: the aircraft interrogates and the ground beacon replies, and the receiver measures the round-trip time to derive slant range. The responding transponder (the SSR-type function) is at the ground station.

  111. Q111. An aircraft departs from 15°S 075°W on a track of 180°T. What is its latitude after flying 300nm?

    • 45 degrees South
    • 30 degrees South
    • 20 degrees SouthCorrect answer
    • 10 degrees South
    Why: Tracking due south (180°T) the aircraft changes latitude only, and 300 nm equals 300 minutes = 5° of latitude. Starting at 15°S and moving 5° further south gives 20°S.

  112. Q112. DR navivation enroute ETA is calculated by:

    • TAS against actual time of departure
    • GS against actual time of departureCorrect answer
    • GS against calculated time of departure
    • Distance measured against GS
    Why: En-route ETA is found from groundspeed, not true airspeed: divide the distance to run by the groundspeed to get the time en route, then add it to the actual time of departure or last fix. Using TAS would ignore the wind and give a wrong arrival time.

  113. Q113. What do conformal and orthomorphic charts have in common?

    • Scale constant
    • Correct Shape
    • Correct AngleCorrect answer
    • Correct Distance
    Why: Conformal (orthomorphic) projections preserve angles, so bearings drawn and measured on the chart are correct. They do not hold scale, shape or distance correct across the whole chart.

  114. Q114. How accurate would a typical civilian GPS receiver be for at least 95% of the time?

    • +/- 3m
    • +/- 30m
    • +/- 100mCorrect answer
    • +/- 300m
    Why: An unaugmented civilian GPS receiver gives a horizontal fix within about 100 metres for at least 95% of the time, so the expected accuracy is roughly +/- 100 m.

  115. Q115. On an air traffic controller’s SSR radar display an aircraft with mode “A” transponder displays:

    • The aircraft mode ”A” code onlyCorrect answer
    • Either the aircraft’s mode “A” code or ATC programmed callsign
    • The aircraft’s ATC programmed callsign and Flight level
    • The aircraft’s flight level and mode “A” code
    Why: A Mode A reply carries only the four-digit identity code, with no height information. The controller's display therefore shows just the aircraft's Mode A code (until a callsign is correlated by the system).

  116. Q116. Secondary radar relies on:

    • A target’s response on a separate frequencyCorrect answer
    • The reflection of a continuous wave of radio energy
    • The doppler shift of reflected radio energy
    • The reflection of pulses of radio energy
    Why: Secondary surveillance radar works by interrogation and reply: the ground station transmits on 1030 MHz and the transponder answers on 1090 MHz, a separate frequency. It does not depend on reflected energy like primary radar.

  117. Q117. What can be provided by mode c of an aircraft to SSR?

    • 4 emergency codes + aircraft altitude + pressure setting 1013.25
    • All 4096 codes
    • Aircraft altitude/mode A + altimeter with pressure at 1013.25Correct answer
    Why: Mode C adds pressure-altitude reporting to the Mode A identity code. The encoded height is always referenced to the standard 1013.25 hPa datum, so ATC can apply the local setting; it does not transmit additional emergency codes or all 4096 codes.

  118. Q118. Compass deviation:

    • Based on aircraft design and remains constantCorrect answer
    • Varies with heading
    • Varies with heading and longitude
    • Difference between magnetic track made good and indicated heading
    Why: Deviation is the compass error caused by the aircraft's own magnetic fields (electrical equipment and ferrous metal), so it is fixed by the installation and recorded on a correction card. While it can vary with heading on a given airframe, among the options it is best described as design-dependent and otherwise constant.

  119. Q119. SSR measures response speed by:

    • Ground speedCorrect answer
    • Indicated airspeed
    • Mach
    • True airspeed
    Why: Because SSR plots successive transponder replies as the aircraft moves over the ground, the speed it derives from that movement is ground speed, not airspeed or Mach number.

  120. Q120. VOR frequency:

    • 406 KHz
    • 5643 KHz
    • 112.1 MHzCorrect answer
    • 239.2 MHz
    Why: A VOR transmits in the VHF band, 108.0–117.95 MHz, so 112.1 MHz is a valid VOR frequency. 406 kHz lies in the low-frequency band (emergency beacons and NDBs), well outside the VOR range.

  121. Q121. NDB purpose:

    • Terminal and enroute navigationCorrect answer
    • Terminal only
    • Enroute only
    Why: An NDB provides a non-directional bearing usable both at airfields, for instrument approaches and holding (terminal), and along airways (en-route). It therefore serves both terminal and en-route navigation.

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