CAAS PPL Practice Tests

Questions & Explained Answers

CAAS PPL Aircraft General Knowledge Practice Questions, with Explained Answers

All 366 of our Aircraft General Knowledge practice questions, each shown with the correct answer and a short explanation of the reasoning behind it. Use it to revise, to check your working after a quiz, or to learn the theory the way the CAAS PPL exam tests it.

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  1. Q1. What is not part of the ignition system?

    • Distributor
    • Magneto
    • Spark Plug
    • Starter MotorCorrect answer
    Why: The ignition system creates and delivers the spark: the magneto generates the high-tension current, the distributor routes it to the correct cylinder, and the spark plug ignites the mixture. The starter motor merely turns the engine over to start it and plays no part in ignition.

  2. Q2. What is not the purpose for oil?

    • Cleaning
    • Lubrication
    • Cooling
    • Eliminate static electricityCorrect answer
    Why: Engine oil performs four roles: it lubricates moving parts, carries heat away to cool them, cleans by suspending carbon and metal particles, and helps seal piston rings. It does not eliminate static electricity, which is a function of bonding leads and static wicks.

  3. Q3. What is the function of the commutator?

    • Generate DC in generator Correct answer
    • Generate DC in alternator
    • Generate AC in generator
    • Generate AC in alternator
    Why: A generator produces alternating current internally, and the commutator (a split-ring with brushes) reverses the connections each half-turn to rectify that output into direct current at the terminals. An alternator instead uses diodes, not a commutator, to rectify its AC.

  4. Q4. What type of ignition system is most used by today's modern piston aircraft?

    • A dual ignition system with two independent magnetos, each firing one of two spark plugs per cylinderCorrect answer
    • A single magneto firing one spark plug per cylinder
    • A battery-and-coil ignition system dependent on the aircraft electrical system
    • An alternator supplying the spark plugs directly with no magneto
    Why: Modern piston aircraft use a dual ignition system comprising two entirely independent magnetos, each supplying one of the two spark plugs fitted to every cylinder. This gives redundancy if one magneto fails and improves combustion by igniting the mixture from two points at once. A magneto is self-contained and needs no aircraft electrical power.
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  5. Q5. What type of magneto system is most used by today’s modern aircraft?

    • Dual ignition, independent systemCorrect answer
    • Single ignition system
    • Triple ignition, independent system
    • Dual magneto, redundant system.
    Why: Light aircraft use a dual, independent magneto ignition system. Each engine has two magnetos, each firing one of the two spark plugs in every cylinder, so a failure of one magneto still leaves the engine running and combustion is more complete.

  6. Q6. An electrical system that uses aircraft structure to return the current is called:

    • Single phase circuit
    • Earth return circuitCorrect answer
    • Diode return circuit
    • Dipole circuit
    Why: An earth-return (or ground-return) circuit uses the metal airframe itself as the return path for current, so only a single insulated wire is needed to each component. This saves weight and wiring compared with running a dedicated return conductor everywhere.

  7. Q7. Stall warning in modern light aircraft:

    • Stick shaker
    • Artificial voice
    • Buzzer or whistleCorrect answer
    • Stick pusher
    Why: Light aircraft typically give an aural stall warning, a buzzer or whistle, triggered as the wing nears the critical angle of attack. Stick shakers and pushers are heavier systems found on larger or transport aircraft, not simple trainers.

  8. Q8. If throttle/mixture controls constant with increasing altitude, volume of air:

    • Remains constant, weight and density decreaseCorrect answer
    • Increases, weight and density increase
    • Remains constant
    Why: At a fixed throttle the carburettor passes roughly the same volume of air, but as altitude rises the air becomes less dense, so each unit volume contains less mass. The volume stays about constant while its weight and density fall, progressively richening the mixture.

  9. Q9. What provides direct current during flight?

    • Alternator
    • BatteryCorrect answer
    • Magneto
    Why: The battery is the source of stored direct current. Although the alternator supplies the electrical load and recharges the battery in flight, an alternator produces AC which must be rectified; the battery itself is the DC source and reservoir, supplying current directly.

  10. Q10. There’s increasing oil temperature and pressure. What should you do?

    • Means that oil pressure gauge is spoilt, consult mechanic ASAP
    • Means that oil temperature gauge is spoilt, consult mechanic ASAP
    • Abort flightCorrect answer
    Why: Oil temperature and pressure both rising together points to a genuine developing fault in the oil system rather than a single faulty gauge, so the safe response is to abort the flight and land. Continuing risks engine seizure if lubrication or cooling fails.

  11. Q11. Max climbing efficiency is at:

    • Flaps upCorrect answer
    • Take-off flaps
    • Landing flaps
    Why: The best climb performance is achieved with flaps up (clean configuration). Flaps add drag, which reduces the excess thrust available for climbing; retracting them gives the best lift-to-drag ratio and the greatest rate and angle of climb.

  12. Q12. What is the most important function of the alternator?

    • Charge batteryCorrect answer
    • Supply energy to the magneto
    • Power the aircraft when engine is not running
    Why: In flight the alternator's key job is to keep the battery charged and supply the electrical loads. The battery cannot power the aircraft indefinitely, so the alternator continuously replenishes it; the magneto is self-powered and needs no electrical supply.

  13. Q13. Output of the accelerator pump is affected by?

    • Rate change (of increase) of throttleCorrect answer
    • Max throttle OR just change
    • Initial power setting
    Why: The accelerator pump delivers an extra squirt of fuel when the throttle is opened to prevent a lean stumble. Its output depends on how rapidly the throttle is advanced, the rate of increase, so a faster opening produces a larger enrichment shot.

  14. Q14. Steady power-on descent would have which of the following criteria:

    • Drag greater than thrust
    • Thrust equal drag
    • Lift greater than mass
    • Drag greater than thrustCorrect answer
    Why: In a steady descent the aircraft is angled nose-down, so a component of weight acts forward along the flight path. To hold constant speed, drag must therefore exceed thrust, the surplus drag balancing that forward weight component.

  15. Q15. If you are practising STALL exercises, experience wing drop and yaw what could happen?

    • Adverse aileron yaw
    • Adverse yaw aileron
    • Impending spinCorrect answer
    Why: A wing drop accompanied by yaw at the stall is the classic onset of autorotation: the lower wing is more deeply stalled and the yaw drives the rotation, so the impending result is a spin if not corrected promptly with rudder.

  16. Q16. How fuel mixture control unit work in the carburetor?

    • Barometric
    • Poppet valve
    • Needle-mixture controlCorrect answer
    Why: A carburettor mixture control typically works by a needle that varies the size of the fuel passage to the jets. Moving the needle alters the fuel flow relative to the airflow, leaning or enriching the mixture as required with altitude.

  17. Q17. How can you reduce spark plug fouling?

    • Enrich mixtureCorrect answer
    • Run engine until CHT Temp is above normal operating temperature
    • Run engine until CHT Temp is lower than the normal operating temperature
    • Use higher grade fuel
    Why: Spark-plug fouling at low power comes from a cool, over-lean mixture leaving lead and carbon deposits. Enriching the mixture raises combustion quality and helps burn off and prevent those deposits, keeping the plugs clean.

  18. Q18. How to reduce spark plug fouling?

    • Enrich mixture
    • Run engine until CHT Temp is above normal operating temperatureCorrect answer
    • Run engine until CHT Temp is lower than the normal operating temperature
    • Use higher grade fuel
    Why: Fouling deposits accumulate when cylinders run cool, such as during a long low-power descent. Running the engine so the cylinder-head temperature rises above the normal range helps burn off the lead and carbon deposits and clears fouled plugs.

  19. Q19. What do you do when you experience fluctuating oil pressure but high temperature?

    • Serious problem, land immediatelyCorrect answer
    • Faulty oil sensing pump, inform ground crew at end of flight
    • Faulty oil pressure sensor, inform ground crew at end of flight
    Why: Fluctuating oil pressure together with high oil temperature indicates a real loss of lubrication or oil-system failure, not merely a faulty sensor. This is a serious problem, so the correct action is to land immediately before the engine is damaged.

  20. Q20. Where does the line of action of Drag cuts through?

    • Centre of Pressure
    • Centre of GravityCorrect answer
    • Centre of lift
    • Centre of aerodynamics
    Why: For the four-force analysis, drag is taken to act through the centre of gravity. Treating thrust, lift, weight and drag as acting through the CG (the point about which the aircraft balances) lets their turning moments be assessed about that common point.

  21. Q21. What is the first thing to do to recover from a wing drop stall?

    • Apply opposite ailerons
    • Apply opposite rudderCorrect answer
    • Apply full power
    • Ease control column forward
    Why: At a wing-drop stall the priority is to prevent the yaw that drives autorotation, so the first action is to apply opposite rudder to stop further yaw. Using ailerons first could deepen the stall on the dropping wing and provoke a spin.

  22. Q22. Lift/drag ratio is a measure of:

    • EfficiencyCorrect answer
    • Lifting capabilities
    • Effectiveness
    Why: The lift-to-drag ratio expresses how much lift an aerofoil produces for a given amount of drag, so it is a direct measure of aerodynamic efficiency. A higher L/D means lift is obtained more economically, giving the best glide and range.

  23. Q23. Modern aero engine now have associate start motor lights that:

    • Illuminate for a few seconds after engine started
    • Extinguish as soon as the starter is energised
    • Extinguish immediately after the pilot release the starterCorrect answer
    Why: A starter warning light shows that the starter is still engaged. It should extinguish immediately when the pilot releases the starter; if it stays lit, the starter has failed to disengage and could be damaged by the running engine.

  24. Q24. During the stall, the airflow comes from:

    • Below, reducing the angle of attack
    • Above, increasing the angle of attack
    • Below, tending to maintain the stalling angle of attackCorrect answer
    Why: Once stalled, the aircraft sinks, so the relative airflow comes from below. This upward-from-below component keeps the angle of attack at or above the stalling angle, which is why simply lowering the nose to reduce the angle of attack is needed to recover.

  25. Q25. Torsional load of airframe cause:

    • Stretch
    • Compress
    • TwistCorrect answer
    • Bend
    Why: A torsional load is a twisting load. It applies a turning moment along a structural member, tending to twist it about its axis, as distinct from tension (stretch), compression, or bending loads.

  26. Q26. As altitude increases:

    • Pressure increase
    • Pressure decreases until tropopause
    • Decrease of pressure has more effect on density than decrease of temperatureCorrect answer
    • Decrease of temperature has more effect on density than decrease of pressure
    Why: Both pressure and temperature fall with height, and both affect density, but the pressure drop dominates. Falling pressure reduces density, while the accompanying temperature drop tends to raise it; the net effect is that decreasing pressure has the greater influence, so density decreases.

  27. Q27. Laminar flow in boundary layer:

    • Found above turbulent flowCorrect answer
    • Found below turbulent flow
    • Presence turbulent flow
    • Found together with turbulent flow
    Why: Within the boundary layer the smooth laminar flow lies upstream and, in the layer's profile, sits above the surface before the flow transitions; the turbulent region forms below and behind it nearer the surface. Laminar flow precedes and overlies the turbulent flow.

  28. Q28. The main purpose of trailing edge flaps is to:

    • Lower the nose and increase forward visibility
    • To increase drag at high airspeeds and low angles of attack
    • To increase lift at low airspeeds and high angles of attackCorrect answer
    Why: The primary purpose of trailing-edge flaps is to raise the lift coefficient at a given airspeed, letting the aeroplane fly safely at lower speeds for take-off and landing. They also add drag and lower the nose attitude, but the steeper approach and improved view are secondary consequences of that extra lift.

  29. Q29. Prop windmilling is:

    • A fixed pitch prop, when airspeed is increased and engine torque is increased, will have an RPM increase
    • In a CSU prop, where the blades are fined to give zero lift
    • In a CSU prop, where the blades are fined past their stops, to a blade angle of -20 degrees
    • When there is a loss of engine torque, causing the CSU to fine the prop, and TR to opposite directionCorrect answer
    Why: On a constant-speed installation, a loss of engine torque lets the constant-speed unit drive the blades to fine pitch. The airflow then turns the propeller like a windmill, and the total reaction reverses to act as drag rather than thrust.

  30. Q30. Directional Stability:

    • Dihedral Wings
    • Anhedral Wings
    • FinsCorrect answer
    • Rudder
    Why: Directional (weathercock) stability about the normal axis is provided chiefly by the fin (vertical stabiliser). Like a weather vane, its side area behind the centre of gravity generates a restoring yawing moment that swings the nose back into the relative airflow after a disturbance.

  31. Q31. Red hot carbon deposits are caused by:

    • Detonation
    • Pre-ignition
    • Incomplete combustionCorrect answer
    Why: Carbon builds up when fuel is not fully burned, so red-hot carbon deposits result from incomplete combustion, typically from an over-rich mixture. Once glowing, such deposits can themselves cause pre-ignition.

  32. Q32. Downwash:

    • High at High AoACorrect answer
    • High at High Airspeed
    • Low at Low Airspeed
    Why: Downwash is the downward deflection of air behind the wing and increases with angle of attack, because a higher angle of attack means more lift and a greater downward turning of the airflow. It is governed by angle of attack, not directly by airspeed.

  33. Q33. Friction is highest at:

    • Laminar airflow
    • Turbulent airflowCorrect answer
    • Separation point
    • Stagnation point
    Why: Skin friction is greatest in turbulent airflow, because the chaotic mixing within a turbulent boundary layer carries high-energy air down to the surface, producing larger shear stress than the smooth, layered laminar flow.

  34. Q34. How do you increase the surface area for cooling of the engine?

    • Cowling Flaps
    • Cylinder Cooling FinsCorrect answer
    • Baffles
    Why: Air-cooled cylinders carry cooling fins, thin metal ridges that greatly enlarge the surface area in contact with the cooling airflow. The larger area allows more heat to be transferred from the cylinder to the passing air.

  35. Q35. What is it called when the tail angle of incidence less than wing angle of incidence:

    • Longitudinal dihedralCorrect answer
    • Pitch anhedral
    • Rigger’s angle
    Why: Setting the tailplane to a smaller angle of incidence than the mainplane is called longitudinal dihedral. This rigging difference helps provide longitudinal (pitch) stability, the tailplane producing a restoring moment when the aircraft is disturbed in pitch.

  36. Q36. During a climb:

    • Downwash exceeds upwashCorrect answer
    • Upwash exceeds downwash
    • Both equal
    Why: In a climb the angle of attack and lift demand mean the wing deflects more air downward, so downwash exceeds upwash. The net downward deflection of the airflow is the reaction to the lift being produced.

  37. Q37. What is the point on the lower boundary layer where airflow stops and reverses:

    • Separation pointCorrect answer
    • Transition point
    • Reversal point
    Why: The separation point is where the boundary-layer flow, slowed by an adverse pressure gradient near the surface, comes to rest and reverses, lifting the flow away from the aerofoil. Beyond it the airflow detaches, leading to a turbulent wake and loss of lift.

  38. Q38. How does a pilot change bank attitude?

    • Roll about longitudinal axisCorrect answer
    • Pitch about the longitudinal axis
    • Roll about the lateral axis
    Why: Bank is changed by rolling the aircraft about its longitudinal axis (the axis running nose to tail) using the ailerons. Rolling about this axis raises one wing and lowers the other to set the angle of bank.

  39. Q39. AVGAS density is:

    • Same as water
    • Slightly higher than water
    • Significantly higher than water
    • Significantly lower than waterCorrect answer
    Why: Aviation gasoline is significantly less dense than water, around 0.72 kg per litre against water's 1.0. This is why water contamination sinks to the bottom of the tank and can be drained off at the sump, since it is heavier than the fuel.

  40. Q40. Discrepancies in altimeter due to imperfection arising in manufacturing is called:

    • Instrument errorCorrect answer
    • Manufacturing error
    • Position error
    Why: Errors arising from manufacturing imperfections and tolerances within the instrument mechanism itself are termed instrument error. They are inherent to that individual instrument, as opposed to position error, which comes from where the pressure source is mounted on the airframe.

  41. Q41. a supercharger/turbocharger...

    • Reduces density of f/a by expansion
    • Increases density of f/a by compressionCorrect answer
    • Reduces volume of f/a by compression
    • Increases volume of f/a by expansion
    Why: A supercharger or turbocharger compresses the induction air before it enters the cylinders. Compression raises its density, packing more air mass into the same volume, which restores or boosts power, especially at altitude where ambient air is thin.

  42. Q42. SAE ratings for 100 AVGAS:

    • 25
    • 50Correct answer
    • 100
    Why: Aviation grades and SAE oil grades follow a roughly 2:1 relationship, so an aviation grade of 100 corresponds to an SAE viscosity rating of 50. The number indicates the oil's viscosity, the higher the number the thicker the oil.

  43. Q43. When does side wall of wheel experiment most stress?

    • Turning on ground
    • Landing on wet runway
    • When wheels are locked when taxiingCorrect answer
    Why: The greatest sidewall stress arises when a wheel is locked while the aircraft is still moving, as when wheels are locked during taxiing, because the tyre is dragged sideways and scrubbed rather than rolling freely, twisting the sidewall.

  44. Q44. What is the aerofoil structure of the plane called?

    • Warp
    • Section
    • CamberCorrect answer
    • Chord
    Why: Camber describes the curvature of an aerofoil, the curve of its upper and lower surfaces relative to the chord line. This shaping accelerates airflow over the top and is fundamental to how the section generates lift.

  45. Q45. What is the proper pressure for gyro?

    • 1-3
    • 3-4Correct answer
    • 5-7
    • 8-12
    Why: Vacuum-driven gyroscopic instruments need their suction held within a set band, around 3 to 4 inches of mercury, to spin the gyro at the correct speed. Too little suction leaves the gyro under-speed and unreliable, too much can damage it.

  46. Q46. What is the name of the circuit that follows the aircraft shape?

    • Diode return
    • Earth returnCorrect answer
    • Dipole
    Why: An earth-return circuit uses the conductive airframe as the return path for the electrical current, so the aircraft structure itself completes the circuit. Only one insulated supply wire is then needed to each component, saving weight.

  47. Q47. G meter was reset at straight and level and then plane banked 60 degree what was amount of Gs?

    • 0.0
    • 1.0
    • 1.4
    • 2.0Correct answer
    Why: Load factor in a balanced, level turn is 1/cos(bank angle). At 60 degrees of bank that is 1/cos60 = 1/0.5 = 2.0g. A peak-reading (max needle) g-meter reset in straight-and-level flight would therefore latch 2.0g once the aircraft is established in the level 60-degree banked turn.

  48. Q48. What is the colour of AVGAS?

    • BlueCorrect answer
    • Green
    • Yellow
    • Red
    Why: Aviation gasoline is dyed to identify its grade; 100LL is dyed blue. The colour lets a pilot confirm the correct fuel grade during pre-flight checks, distinguishing it from colourless jet fuel.

  49. Q49. What is the first symptom of stall?

    • Buffeting
    • Stall hornCorrect answer
    • Gforce
    Why: In most light aircraft the first warning of an approaching stall is the stall warning horn, which sounds a few knots above the stalling speed as the angle of attack nears the critical value, before aerodynamic buffet is felt.

  50. Q50. When does the left wheel experience the most stress?

    • Take-off
    • Turning left on the groundCorrect answer
    • Landing
    Why: The left wheel is stressed most when turning left on the ground, because in a tight turn the inner (left) tyre is scrubbed sideways and may be dragged rather than rolling cleanly, twisting its sidewall.

  51. Q51. At slow speed straight and level, which forces are equal?

    • Lift balances drag and thrust balances weight
    • Drag and weight couple balances out lift and thrust
    • Lift is equal to weight and thrust is equal to dragCorrect answer
    Why: In any straight-and-level flight, regardless of speed, the opposing forces balance: lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. The aircraft is in equilibrium, so there is no net force and speed and height remain constant.

  52. Q52. What is used to air-cool the engine most effectively?

    • Oil
    • BafflesCorrect answer
    • Excess fuel
    • Cowling flaps
    Why: Baffles are sheet-metal guides that channel and direct the cooling airflow around and between the cylinders so the air is forced over the hot fins rather than spilling past. They make air cooling far more effective by distributing the flow.

  53. Q53. What is the difference between a servo tab and a balance tab?

    • With a servo tab, the controls directly control the tab while in a balance tab, the controls move the elevatorsCorrect answer
    • A servo tab moves in the opposite direction to the balance tab
    • The servo tab gives the pilot more “feel” over the controls while a balance tab relieves control pressures
    Why: With a servo tab the pilot's controls move only the tab, and the tab's aerodynamic force then deflects the main control surface. With a balance tab the controls move the surface directly and the tab is linked to move automatically to ease the load.

  54. Q54. What is the type of flaps that moves down and backwards when extended?

    • Split Flaps
    • Basic flaps
    • Fowler FlapCorrect answer
    • Slotted flap
    Why: A Fowler flap moves rearward as well as down when extended. The aft travel increases the wing area first, adding lift with little drag, before the downward deflection increases camber, giving a large lift increase for a given drag penalty.

  55. Q55. The error caused by the turbulent airflow around the static intake is called?

    • Volume error
    • Instrument error
    • Density error
    • Position errorCorrect answer
    Why: Disturbed airflow around the static port means the sensed pressure differs slightly from the true ambient static pressure. The resulting instrument error is called position (or pressure) error, because it depends on where the port is located on the airframe.

  56. Q56. How will the ASI indicate if the pitot tube is blocked on the ground?

    • Indicate zeroCorrect answer
    • Overread
    • Underread
    Why: The airspeed indicator works on the difference between pitot (total) and static pressure. If the pitot tube is blocked on the ground with the aircraft stationary, no dynamic pressure builds up, so the ASI reads zero and stays there as speed increases.

  57. Q57. For stability on the ground:

    • CG has to be within the 3 wheelsCorrect answer
    • CG has to be at the aft limit
    • CG has to be at forward limit
    • CG has to be right in the middle of acceptable limit
    Why: For ground stability the centre of gravity must lie within the area bounded by the three wheels of the undercarriage. If it falls inside this triangle, the aircraft cannot tip over; outside it, the aircraft would rock onto its nose or tail.

  58. Q58. The back-suction type mixture control in an aero engine carburettor is also known as

    • Poppet Valve
    • Jet restriction
    • Float chamber depression
    • Negative PressureCorrect answer
    Why: The back-suction mixture control leans the mixture by applying a reduced (negative) pressure above the fuel in the float chamber. Lowering the pressure differential across the jet reduces fuel flow, so it is known as a negative-pressure type.

  59. Q59. If there is insufficient current generated from an alternator:

    • Increase the current load to re-excite the alternator
    • Recycle the alternator off, then on
    • Turn off the aircraft battery
    • Turn off all the non-essential electrical equipmentCorrect answer
    Why: If the alternator cannot meet the electrical demand, the battery will discharge. The correct response is to turn off all non-essential electrical equipment, reducing the load so the remaining supply lasts longer and feeds only essential services.

  60. Q60. To achieve straight and level flight:

    • Total lift is equal to total weight and total thrust is equal to total dragCorrect answer
    • Lift and thrust equals to weight and drag
    • Total lift is equal to total drag and total thrust is equal to total weight
    • Lift and drag equals to thrust and weight
    Why: Straight-and-level flight requires equilibrium of the four forces: total lift equals total weight, and total thrust equals total drag. With no net force in any direction, the aircraft maintains constant height, heading and speed.

  61. Q61. The secondary effect of the ailerons is:

    • Yaw in the longitudinal axis
    • Yaw in the normal axisCorrect answer
    • Rolls in the normal axis
    • Pitch in the lateral axis
    Why: When ailerons roll the aircraft, the further-down aileron creates more induced drag than the up-going one, yawing the nose towards the raised wing. This adverse yaw about the normal axis is the secondary effect of aileron use.

  62. Q62. What will cause a change in the maximum load an aircraft can carry?

    • Air Stability
    • Pressure densityCorrect answer
    • Crosswind condition
    • Runway condition
    Why: The maximum load an aircraft can lift off depends on air density (pressure density / density altitude). Less dense air, from high elevation, high temperature or low pressure, reduces lift and engine power, lowering the weight that can be safely carried.

  63. Q63. A tab can be found on the outboard leading edge of a wing. What is the purpose of this tab?

    • Induce buffetingCorrect answer
    • ) Decrease stalling speed
    • Make ailerons more effective at low speeds
    Why: A small tab on the outboard wing leading edge is a stall-warning device that, near the critical angle of attack, disturbs the airflow to induce buffet, alerting the pilot. It warns of the approaching stall by deliberately triggering vibration.

  64. Q64. The line of drag passes through the:

    • Aerodynamic Centre
    • Centre of GravityCorrect answer
    • Centre of Lift
    • Centre of Pressure
    Why: For the four-force model, drag is considered to act through the centre of gravity. Resolving all four forces through the common CG point allows their moments to be balanced about it when analysing equilibrium.

  65. Q65. Where fitted, superchargers are located:

    • Between the carburetor and inlet manifoldCorrect answer
    • Between the carburetor and air intake
    • Before the air intake ducting
    • After the inlet manifold
    Why: A supercharger is positioned in the induction system between the carburettor and the inlet manifold, so it compresses the fuel-air mixture after it leaves the carburettor and delivers it, denser, to the cylinders.

  66. Q66. The most likely contaminant in the fuel tank is:

    • WaterCorrect answer
    • Air
    • Dust
    Why: The commonest fuel-tank contaminant is water, which enters by condensation as warm moist air in the tank cools, or with refuelling. Being denser than AVGAS, it settles to the lowest point and is checked for and drained at the sump before flight.

  67. Q67. Red hot carbon deposit in a dirty engine can cause:

    • DetonationCorrect answer
    • Back-firing
    • Pre-ignition
    Why: Glowing carbon deposits in a dirty cylinder act as a hot spot, but here they raise combustion temperatures and pressures enough to cause detonation, the spontaneous, explosive burning of the end-gas, which can damage the engine.

  68. Q68. To save weight, whenever possible *aero engines* are constructed using:

    • Carbon fibre
    • Hardened steel
    • Cast iron
    • Aluminum alloyCorrect answer
    Why: Aero engines are made largely from aluminium alloy wherever possible because it offers good strength for very low weight and conducts heat well. Saving weight improves performance, while steel and cast iron are reserved for high-stress or wear parts.

  69. Q69. You suspect carburettor icing in flight and apply full carburettor heat. The engine then started running rough. What has probably happened?

    • There is detonation due to reduced fuel/air ratioCorrect answer
    • Volumetric efficiency has increased, which is upsetting the ignition timing
    • There has been a significant build up of ice, which is melting
    • There was no icing and the increased air density is upsetting the mixture ratio
    Why: Applying full carburettor heat warms and expands the induction air, reducing its density and so enriching, then over-leaning, the mixture as warm air carries less oxygen. The leaner charge can cause detonation and rough running until conditions settle.

  70. Q70. When cool air passes around the aero engine, it will:

    • Increase dragCorrect answer
    • Increase lift
    • Decrease lift
    Why: Routing cooling air around the engine extracts energy from the airflow, so it increases drag, specifically cooling drag. The air slows and is heated as it passes the cylinders, and this momentum loss is felt as additional drag on the aircraft.

  71. Q71. A deep cut in the sidewall of an aircraft tyre:

    • Is not a problem as long as it does not extend to the tread
    • Is the normal means of allowing sidewall flexure
    • Will render the tyre unserviceableCorrect answer
    • Indicates that the tyre has been marked by engineers for replacement at the next service.
    Why: A deep cut in a tyre's sidewall renders the tyre unserviceable, because the sidewall flexes heavily in service and a cut there can grow under load, exposing the carcass cords and risking a sudden blow-out. Such a tyre must be replaced.

  72. Q72. What part of an aero engine cooling system maximises the surface area exposed to cooling air?

    • Cowl flaps
    • Cowling seams
    • FinsCorrect answer
    • Baffles
    Why: Cooling fins on the cylinders maximise the surface area exposed to the cooling airflow. The thin metal ridges spread the cylinder's heat over a much larger area so it can be carried away by the passing air more effectively.

  73. Q73. During an extended period of descent, the chances of spark-plug fouling can be reduced by:

    • Over-leaning the mixture
    • Enriching the mixture
    • Increasing power periodicallyCorrect answer
    • Keeping the cylinder head temperature at the low end of the normal operating range
    Why: On a long, low-power descent the cool, lean running encourages plug fouling. Periodically increasing power warms the cylinders and enriches the charge, helping to burn off deposits and keep the spark plugs clean.

  74. Q74. What is the term used to describe the overall curvature of an aerofoil?

    • Section
    • Warp
    • CamberCorrect answer
    • Chord
    Why: Camber is the term for the overall curvature of an aerofoil, the shape of its upper and lower surfaces relative to the straight chord line. The amount and distribution of camber strongly influence the section's lift characteristics.

  75. Q75. What is the function of pressure relief valve within the engine oil system?

    • To open and relieve the oil pressure when it exceeds a predetermined level.Correct answer
    • To open when the oil is too cool and thick to pass through the pump
    • To permit oil bypass the pump in the event that the pump becomes clogged
    • To trap small metallic particles for subsequent analysis
    Why: The oil-system pressure relief valve opens to bleed oil back to the inlet side whenever pressure exceeds a preset level, protecting the system from over-pressure damage. It thus regulates and limits oil pressure, particularly when the oil is cold and thick.

  76. Q76. Most aero engines have a:

    • Dual,low-tension ignition system
    • Simplex ignition system
    • Dual, independent ignition systemCorrect answer
    • Triplex, double-redundant ignition system
    Why: Most aero engines use a dual, independent ignition system: two magnetos, each firing one of the two plugs in every cylinder. This gives redundancy if one system fails and more complete, even combustion when both are working.

  77. Q77. The reciprocating (piston) engine operates on the principle that:

    • For every action there is an equal and opposite reactionCorrect answer
    • What goes up must come down
    • Gas will expand if it is heated
    • Hot air rises
    Why: The piston engine relies on Newton's third law: burning the fuel-air charge produces rapidly expanding gas whose pressure pushes the piston down, and for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction driving the mechanism that turns the crankshaft.

  78. Q78. Excessive stress on the side walls of aircraft tyres can be caused by:

    • Parking the aircraft on a slope
    • Locking the inner wheel in a tight turnCorrect answer
    • Landing on wet runways
    • Hard braking on grass surfaces
    Why: Sidewall stress is greatest when a tyre is scrubbed sideways, such as locking the inner wheel in a tight turn. The dragged tyre is twisted rather than rolled, concentrating shear in the flexing sidewall.

  79. Q79. The pilot of a light aeroplane resets the “g” meter during straight and level flight, then carries out a steep level turn at 60 degree angle of bank. After returning to straight and level flight, what will the maximum needle on the “g” needle indicate?

    • 0.0g
    • 1.0g
    • 1.4g
    • 2.0gCorrect answer
    Why: In a balanced level turn the load factor is 1 divided by the cosine of the bank angle. At 60° that is 1/cos 60° = 1/0.5 = 2.0g, so the maximum-reading needle latches at 2.0g. The 1.0g figure is only the steady straight-and-level load, not the peak reached in the turn.

  80. Q80. A generator will normally have a built-in:

    • Accumulator to produce DC
    • Commutator to produce DCCorrect answer
    • Rectifier to produce AC
    • Alternator to produce AC
    Why: A DC generator has a built-in commutator, a segmented ring with brushes that reverses the coil connections every half-revolution to convert the internally generated AC into direct current at the output terminals.

  81. Q81. Creep marks are put onto tyres which:

    • Are subject to take-off stress usually experienced on loose gravel or concrete
    • Are approaching the limit of their tread depth
    • Have an inner tubeCorrect answer
    • Have no inner tube
    Why: Creep marks are painted across the tyre-to-wheel join on tubed tyres. If the tyre slowly creeps round the rim it can drag the tube with it and tear the valve; misaligned creep marks reveal the movement so it can be corrected before the valve fails.

  82. Q82. The idle cut-off system is incorporated as part of the:

    • Throttle control
    • Mixture controlCorrect answer
    • Power enrichment system
    • Fuel pump
    Why: The idle cut-off is part of the mixture control. Moving the mixture lever fully to idle cut-off shuts off the fuel supply to the jets, which is the normal way to stop the engine by starving it of fuel rather than air.

  83. Q83. Using a lower grade of fuel than that specified in an aircraft’s flight manual:

    • Reduces the consumption
    • Increases the chances of plug fouling
    • Reduce the corrosion of exhaust valves and seats
    • Increase the risk of detonationCorrect answer
    Why: Fuel grade reflects its anti-knock (octane) rating. Using a lower grade than specified increases the risk of detonation, because the less knock-resistant fuel can ignite spontaneously under the cylinder's heat and pressure, which can damage the engine.

  84. Q84. The propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller:

    • Is optimum at only one set of rpm and airspeed conditionsCorrect answer
    • Is optimum over a wide range of airspeeds
    • Reaches 100% only in a high powered climb
    • Is constant regardless of rpm or airspeed
    Why: A fixed-pitch propeller has one fixed blade angle, so its blades meet the airflow at the ideal angle of attack at only one combination of rpm and airspeed. Efficiency is optimum at that single design point and falls away at other speeds.

  85. Q85. An aero engine carburettor is calibrated to operate most efficiently at:

    • Sea levelCorrect answer
    • 500ft above msl
    • 1500ft above msl
    • 5000ft above msl
    Why: A carburettor is calibrated to deliver the correct mixture in dense sea-level air. As altitude increases the air thins and the fixed jets deliver a relatively richer mixture, which is why manual leaning with the mixture control becomes necessary.

  86. Q86. A turn indicator shows an aircraft’s:

    • Angle of bank
    • Rate of roll
    • Rate of turnCorrect answer
    • Balance
    Why: A turn indicator displays the aircraft's rate of turn, how many degrees per second the heading is changing, sensed by a rate gyro. It does not directly show angle of bank; the balance ball alongside shows whether the turn is balanced.

  87. Q87. The reciprocating (up/down) motion of the pistons is converted to a rotary motion through the:

    • Connecting rods to the crankshaftCorrect answer
    • Cylinders to the gudgeon pin
    • Lifters to the camshaft
    • Valves to the crankpin
    Why: The pistons' up-and-down motion is turned into rotation by the connecting rods driving the crankshaft. Each rod links its piston to a crank throw, so the linear thrust is converted into a turning moment about the crankshaft axis.

  88. Q88. You suspect carburettor icing in flight and apply full carburettor heat. The engine begins to run very roughly. What has probably caused this?

    • The reduced fuel/air ratio is causing detonation
    • The volumetric efficiency has been reduced because the warmer, less dense air is upsetting the mixture ratio
    • There has been a significant build-up of ice which is meltingCorrect answer
    • There was no icing and the increased air density is upsetting the mixture ratio
    Why: When carburettor ice is present and full carburettor heat is applied, the melting ice produces water that passes through the engine, causing a temporary period of rough running (and possibly a further drop in rpm) before the engine smooths out and power recovers. This momentary roughness confirms ice was present; the correct action is to leave the heat fully ON.

  89. Q89. The brake systems on modern light aircraft are normally operated:

    • Pneumatically
    • HydraulicallyCorrect answer
    • Mechanically
    • Automatically
    Why: Light-aircraft wheel brakes are normally operated hydraulically. Pressing the brake pedal pressurises fluid that is transmitted through lines to the brake units, where it forces the pads against the disc, giving smooth, powerful and self-equalising braking.

  90. Q90. In a dry sump oil system the oil is returned to the oil tank:

    • Under the force of gravity
    • Via the scavenge pump and oil coolerCorrect answer
    • Via the main pump and scavenge filter
    • Via the main oil pump and oil filter
    Why: In a dry-sump system oil draining to the base of the engine is picked up by a scavenge pump and returned to a separate tank, usually passing through the oil cooler on the way. The scavenge pump, not gravity, returns the oil.

  91. Q91. Wheel brakes work on the principle of converting:

    • Kinetic energy into potential energy through tension
    • Potential energy into pressure energy through friction
    • Heat energy into chemical energy through friction
    • Kinetic energy into heat energy through frictionCorrect answer
    Why: Brakes convert the aircraft's kinetic energy into heat energy through friction. Clamping the pads against the rotating disc resists motion, and the work done against friction appears as heat in the brake assembly, slowing the aircraft.

  92. Q92. To save weight, wherever possible aero-engines are constructed using:

    • Carbon fibres
    • Hardened steel
    • Cast iron
    • Aluminium alloyCorrect answer
    Why: Aero engines use aluminium alloy wherever possible because of its high strength-to-weight ratio and good heat conduction. Minimising engine weight benefits performance, with stronger steels kept for the most highly stressed components.

  93. Q93. Prior to changing fuel tanks, it is advisable to:

    • Switch on electric fuel pumpCorrect answer
    • Close the throttle
    • Set mixture to idle cut-off
    • Land at suitable aerodrome
    Why: Before selecting a different fuel tank it is advisable to switch on the electric (auxiliary) fuel pump. This maintains fuel pressure and flow during the changeover, guarding against an air lock or momentary interruption that could cause the engine to falter.

  94. Q94. The function of the cowling over an aero engine is to:

    • Direct cooling air over the engine while minimising dragCorrect answer
    • Limit the amount of cooling air available to the engine and maintain operating temperature
    • Retain the heat of engine within a protected space
    • Ensure steady and progressive changes in the temperature of the engine
    Why: The engine cowling shapes and directs the cooling airflow over the cylinders while presenting a streamlined form, so it cools the engine effectively yet keeps drag to a minimum. Inlets, baffles and outlets manage the air through the cowling.

  95. Q95. The instrument case of a vertical speed indicator contains:

    • A sealed aneroid capsule
    • A flexible capsule and metering unitCorrect answer
    • Two capsules which expand at differing rates
    • A perforated capsule
    Why: A vertical speed indicator contains a flexible capsule connected to static pressure through a calibrated leak (metering unit). The capsule senses pressure directly while the case lags behind through the restriction, and the difference is displayed as rate of climb or descent.

  96. Q96. What are the three main functions of an aero engine oil system?

    • Noise reduction, lubrication, and static electricity elimination
    • Anti-corrosion, cooling and cleaning
    • Lubrication, cooling, and static electricity elimination
    • Lubrication, cooling and cleaningCorrect answer
    Why: The oil system's three main functions are lubrication, cooling and cleaning: it reduces friction and wear between moving parts, carries heat away to cool them, and washes carbon and metal particles away to the filter.

  97. Q97. Red hot carbon deposits in a dirty engine can cause:

    • Detonation
    • Back-firing
    • The spontaneous combustion of the change
    • Pre-ignitionCorrect answer
    Why: Glowing carbon deposits in a dirty cylinder act as an unintended hot spot that can ignite the charge before the spark plug fires. This is pre-ignition, abnormal early combustion that raises temperatures and can quickly damage the engine.

  98. Q98. Where fitted, supercharges are placed:

    • Between the carburettor/fuel control unit and the inlet manifoldCorrect answer
    • Between the air intake and the carburettor/fuel control unit
    • Prior to the air intake ducting
    • After the inlet manifold
    Why: A supercharger is placed between the carburettor or fuel-control unit and the inlet manifold, so it compresses the prepared charge after metering and delivers it, denser, to the cylinders to maintain power at altitude.

  99. Q99. The aerodynamic efficiency of an aerofoil can be determined by examining its:

    • Maximum cruise speed
    • Lift/drag ratioCorrect answer
    • Critical angle of attack
    • Lifting capability
    Why: An aerofoil's aerodynamic efficiency is judged by its lift-to-drag ratio, the lift produced for each unit of drag. The higher the L/D, the more efficiently the section generates lift, giving better glide and range performance.

  100. Q100. As an aircraft approaches the stall:

    • Control effectiveness reducesCorrect answer
    • Control effectiveness increases
    • The nose attitude pitches up
    • The noise level increases
    Why: Approaching the stall the airspeed is low, so the flying controls have less airflow over them and become less responsive. Control effectiveness reduces, and the controls feel sloppy because their force depends on dynamic pressure, which falls with speed.

  101. Q101. The breakdown of airflow from laminar flow to turbulent flow about the airframe or its non-lift producing attachments will:

    • Decrease interference drag
    • Increase parasite dragCorrect answer
    • Decrease from drag
    • Increase induced drag
    Why: When smooth laminar flow breaks down into turbulent flow over the airframe or its non-lifting parts, the increased skin friction and energy loss raise parasite drag. This form of drag, unrelated to lift, grows as the surface flow becomes turbulent.

  102. Q102. The primary indication that the wing has stalled is:

    • The nose pitching up
    • An uncontrolled roll
    • The nose pitching downCorrect answer
    • Buffering or juddering through the airframe and/or controls
    Why: The defining indication that the wing has stalled is the nose pitching down, as the loss of lift behind the centre of gravity and the drop in lift cause the aircraft to pitch nose-down. This natural pitch-down begins the recovery by reducing the angle of attack.

  103. Q103. Friction forces in airflow around aerofoil is caused by:

    • Shear stress between successive layers of airs within the boundary layerCorrect answer
    • Dirt and grime on the surface of an aerofoil
    • The streamlining of the aerofoil shape
    • The mixing of converging airflows at the junction of various surfaces
    Why: Skin-friction drag is a viscous effect: within the boundary layer, successive thin layers of air slide over one another, and the shear stress between them retards the flow next to the surface. Surface contamination can worsen it, but the fundamental cause is viscous shear in the air itself.

  104. Q104. During the climb, trailing edge flaps should be:

    • Extended to the take-off setting because they increase lift
    • Retracted because they increase dragCorrect answer
    • Left at their previous setting because flap operation increases demand on the engine
    • Left at their previous setting because flap operation significantly increases drag
    Why: During the climb the flaps should be retracted because, although they add lift, they add even more drag, which reduces the excess thrust available for climbing. A clean wing gives the best climb performance.

  105. Q105. When an aerofoil is producing lift, the downwash will:

    • Be parallel to the relative airflow
    • Be the same magnitude as the upwash
    • Be less than the upwash
    • Exceed the upwashCorrect answer
    Why: A lifting aerofoil deflects air downward, and the downwash behind the wing exceeds the upwash ahead of it. This net downward turning of the airflow is the reaction associated with the lift being generated.

  106. Q106. A split flap is characterised by:

    • Moving back, increasing the wing area
    • A relatively early separation of the boundary layer, limiting the potential increase in CL max
    • Only the lower surface of the aerofoil movingCorrect answer
    • High pressure air from below the wing being allowed through a slow to re-energise boundary layer flow over the flap
    Why: A split flap is formed by hinging down only the rear part of the lower wing surface, while the upper surface stays fixed. This deflection of just the lower surface increases lift and drag but causes early flow separation behind the wing.

  107. Q107. With regards to pressure, which one of the following is correct?

    • With increasing altitude, decreasing temperature has a greater effect on density than decreasing pressure
    • Pressure increases with increasing altitude as a function of decreasing temperature
    • With increase altitude, decreasing pressure has a greater effect on density than decreasing temperatureCorrect answer
    • Pressure decreases until the tropopause, after which it remains constant
    Why: With increasing altitude both pressure and temperature fall, but the falling pressure has the greater effect on density. Lower pressure reduces density while lower temperature would raise it, and the pressure effect dominates, so density decreases overall with height.

  108. Q108. Balance tabs are a form of:

    • Electronic balance
    • Displacement balance
    • Aerodynamic balanceCorrect answer
    • Mass balance
    Why: A balance tab is a form of aerodynamic balance. As the control surface deflects, the tab moves the opposite way and its aerodynamic force helps drive the surface, reducing the stick force the pilot must apply to hold it deflected.

  109. Q109. Contamination on or damage to the wings will:

    • Reduce lift and increase dragCorrect answer
    • Increase both lift and drag
    • Increase lift and reduce drag
    • Reduce both lift and drag
    Why: Surface contamination or damage, such as frost, dirt or dents, disrupts the smooth airflow over the wing. This reduces the lift the wing can generate and increases drag, degrading performance and raising the stalling speed.

  110. Q110. The speed VA is the:

    • Turbulence penetration speed Vb
    • Aerobatic speed
    • Stalling speed during aerobatics
    • Design manoeuvre speed - VaCorrect answer
    Why: VA is the design manoeuvring speed. At or below VA the aircraft will stall before structural limits are exceeded by full control deflection, so it is the maximum speed at which abrupt full control inputs may be made safely.

  111. Q111. A small amount of top rudder may be applied during recovery from a wing-drop stall to:

    • Roll the wings levelCorrect answer
    • Pitch the nose back towards the horizon
    • Prevent further yaw
    • Un-stall the wings
    Why: During recovery from a wing-drop stall, a little top rudder (rudder towards the higher wing) helps roll the wings level by yawing the aircraft so the lower, more stalled wing speeds up and regains lift, without using ailerons that could deepen its stall.

  112. Q112. To accelerate in level flight:

    • Lift must exceed mass
    • Aircraft mass must be reduced
    • Lift must increase
    • Thrust must be greater than dragCorrect answer
    Why: To speed up in level flight, thrust must be made greater than drag. The surplus thrust provides the net forward force that accelerates the aircraft; once the new higher speed is reached, drag rises to match thrust again and speed stabilises.

  113. Q113. As well as increasing lift at low airspeeds, trailing edge flaps:

    • Increase stall angle of attack - angle of attack will never change
    • Reduce stalling speedCorrect answer
    • Reduce parasite drag
    • Move the centre of pressure forwards
    Why: Besides increasing lift at low speed, lowering trailing-edge flaps reduces the stalling speed. By raising the wing's lift coefficient, flaps let the wing support the aircraft's weight at a lower airspeed, allowing slower, safer approaches and landings.

  114. Q114. The secondary effect of using ailerons to roll the aircraft is:

    • Rolling of the aircraft about longitudinal axis
    • Yawing of aircraft about normal axisCorrect answer
    • Yawing of the aircraft about lateral axis
    • Pitching of aircraft about lateral axis
    Why: Rolling with ailerons produces a secondary yaw about the normal axis. The down-going aileron creates more induced drag than the up-going one, yawing the nose towards the rising wing, the adverse yaw that accompanies an aileron-induced roll.

  115. Q115. Thrust and drag:

    • Are considered to act in opposite directionsCorrect answer
    • Are equal magnitude in level flight
    • Are always at constant value
    • Are always equal and opposite forces
    Why: Thrust and drag are considered to act in opposite directions along the flight path, thrust forward and drag rearward. They are equal only in steady, unaccelerated flight; when they differ, the aircraft accelerates or decelerates, so they are not always equal.

  116. Q116. Artificial stall warning devices fitted to modern light aircraft tend to be:

    • Stick shakers
    • Stick pushers
    • A synthetic voice
    • Aural buzzers or whistlesCorrect answer
    Why: Modern light aircraft generally use aural stall warnings, buzzers or whistles, that sound as the wing nears the critical angle of attack. Stick shakers and pushers are heavier systems found on larger or transport-category aircraft.

  117. Q117. Downwash:

    • Is not affected by either angle of attack or airspeed
    • Increases with increasing angle of attackCorrect answer
    • Reduces with increasing angle of attack
    • Increasing with increasing airspeed
    Why: Downwash increases with increasing angle of attack, because a higher angle of attack produces more lift and deflects the airflow downward more strongly. It is determined by angle of attack rather than directly by airspeed.

  118. Q118. Propeller windmilling effect occurs when:

    • A CSU prop adjusts the prop pitch to the angle of attack so that no prop torque is produced
    • There is a loss of engine torque and the CSU fines off the blade to the extent that TR is in the reverse directionCorrect answer
    • With a fixed pitch prop, airspeed is increased, engine torque is increased and rpm increases
    • A csu prop fines the prop pitch through the fine pitch stop at a blade angle of about minus 20 degrees
    Why: Windmilling occurs when engine torque is lost and a constant-speed unit drives the blades to fine pitch, so far that the total reaction reverses. The airflow then turns the propeller like a windmill, producing drag instead of thrust.

  119. Q119. Rotation of an aircraft about the longitudinal axis is referred to as:

    • Pitch
    • Bank
    • Yaw
    • RollCorrect answer
    Why: Rotation about the longitudinal axis, the line running from nose to tail, is called roll. It is controlled by the ailerons, which raise one wing and lower the other to bank the aircraft.

  120. Q120. An aircraft which returns to its original trimmed attitude displays:

    • Positive static and negative dynamic stability
    • Neutral static and positive dynamic stability
    • Positive static and positive dynamic stabilityCorrect answer
    • Positive static and neutral dynamic stability
    Why: An aircraft that returns to its original trimmed attitude after a disturbance shows both positive static and positive dynamic stability: the initial tendency is to return (positive static) and the resulting oscillations die away with time (positive dynamic).

  121. Q121. The function of aerodynamic balancing of flight controls is to:

    • Eliminate control flutter
    • Make it easier for the pilot to operate controlsCorrect answer
    • Locate the center of gravity of the controls close to the hinge line
    • Eliminate torsional flutter
    Why: Aerodynamic balancing of flight controls makes them easier for the pilot to move by using aerodynamic forces to assist deflection. It reduces the stick force needed at higher speeds, where control loads would otherwise become heavy.

  122. Q122. Pitching is rotation of an aircraft about its:

    • Normal axis
    • Longitudinal axis
    • Lateral axisCorrect answer
    • Central axis
    Why: Pitching is rotation about the lateral axis, the line running wingtip to wingtip through the centre of gravity. Controlled by the elevator, it raises or lowers the nose, changing the aircraft's pitch attitude and angle of attack.

  123. Q123. The application of the rudder at incipient stage of a spin is primarily intended to:

    • Minimise height lose
    • Reduce yaw
    • Roll wings levelCorrect answer
    • Unstall wings
    Why: At the incipient (just-developing) stage of a spin, one wing has stalled and dropped, producing yaw and roll. Prompt opposite rudder checks the yaw and rolls the wings level, stopping the autorotation before a full spin develops.

  124. Q124. What is the name given to the area on the leading edge of an aerofoil where flow is brought completely to rest?

    • Boundary layers
    • Separation point
    • Stagnation pointCorrect answer
    • Resting area
    Why: Near the leading edge the oncoming airflow divides to pass over and under the aerofoil. At the dividing streamline the air is momentarily brought completely to rest; this point of zero velocity and maximum static pressure is the stagnation point.

  125. Q125. At an aerofoiled critical (stalling) angle of attack the:

    • Lift drag ratio is max
    • Coefficient of drag is max
    • Coefficient of lift is max DCorrect answer
    • Aerofoil stops generating lift
    Why: Lift coefficient rises with angle of attack up to the critical (stalling) angle, where it reaches its maximum value. Beyond this angle the airflow separates and the coefficient of lift falls, so CLmax occurs exactly at the stalling angle of attack.

  126. Q126. Aircraft design, where the tailplane is set at a lower angle of incidence than the main wings is called:

    • Negative riggingCorrect answer
    • Longitudinal dihedral
    • Pitch anhedral
    • The rigger’s angle
    Why: Setting the tailplane at a smaller angle of incidence than the mainplane is called longitudinal dihedral (here termed negative rigging). The difference gives the tailplane an effective negative angle that provides the restoring pitching moment for longitudinal stability.

  127. Q127. What does the automatic mixture control use to limit the flow of fuel to the carburettor jets?

    • An air metering port
    • A barometric compensatorCorrect answer
    • Static pressure sensing
    • An aneroid capsule
    Why: An automatic mixture control uses a barometric (aneroid) compensator that senses the fall in air density with altitude and restricts the fuel feed to the jets accordingly, keeping the fuel/air ratio correct as the air thins.

  128. Q128. wWheel brakes work on the principle of converting:

    • Kinetic energy into potential energy through friction
    • Potential energy into pressure energy through friction
    • Heat energy into chemical energy through friction
    • Kinetic energy into heat energy through frictionCorrect answer
    Why: Brakes apply friction between the pads/discs and the rotating wheel. This converts the aircraft's kinetic (motion) energy into heat energy, which is why brakes become hot, slowing the aircraft.

  129. Q129. The primary function of the wings spar is to:

    • Provide the aerofoil shape
    • Contain the fuel load
    • Stiffen the skin which is attached to them
    • Carry the major structural loadsCorrect answer
    Why: The spar is the principal load-bearing member running spanwise through the wing. It carries the major structural loads, chiefly the bending and shear from lift, transmitting them to the fuselage; ribs and skin shape and stiffen but do not carry the main loads.

  130. Q130. Some aero engine starters have an associated starter warning light. this light should:

    • Illuminate if the battery has insufficient charge
    • Extinguish as soon as the starter is energised
    • Extinguish immediately the pilot releases the starterCorrect answer
    • Illuminate for a few seconds after the engine has started
    Why: The starter warning light shows the starter motor is still engaged. It should extinguish immediately the pilot releases the starter; if it stays on, the starter remains engaged with the running engine and can be damaged, so it must be shut down.

  131. Q131. Airspeed that is corrected for position (pressure) error is:

    • Calibrated AirspeedCorrect answer
    • True Airspeed
    • Indicated Airspeed
    Why: Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error and for position (pressure) error caused by imperfect sensing at the pitot/static ports gives calibrated airspeed (CAS). Further correction for density then yields true airspeed.

  132. Q132. Oil which has a viscosity of 100 has SAE rating of:

    • 50Correct answer
    • 200
    • 100
    Why: Aero piston-engine oils are commonly cross-referenced between commercial grade and SAE numbers, with grade 100 oil corresponding to an SAE rating of 50. The number simply denotes the oil's viscosity band.

  133. Q133. The markers (lines) on the side of the turn coordinator represents:

    • Turn rate Correct answer
    • AOB
    • Rate of roll
    Why: The index marks on a turn coordinator or turn-and-slip indicator denote a standard rate of turn (rate one, 3 degrees per second). Aligning the aircraft symbol with a marker shows the aircraft is turning at that defined turn rate.

  134. Q134. Lift and mass:

    • Same at S&LCorrect answer
    • Always act opposite each other
    • Always equal
    • Always constant
    Why: In steady straight-and-level (S&L) flight the four forces are in balance, so lift exactly equals weight (mass). They are equal only in level flight; in a climb, descent or turn the lift required differs, so they are not always equal.

  135. Q135. Trim tab is a:

    • Primary flight control that helps pilots by adding pressure to the rudder
    • Secondary flight control that helps pilots by relieving pressure from the control stickCorrect answer
    • Primary flight control that helps pilots by relieving pressure from the control stick
    • Secondary flight control that helps pilot by adding pressure to the rudder
    Why: A trim tab is a secondary flight control. Set by the pilot, it holds a small aerodynamic force that relieves the steady pressure otherwise needed on the control column, letting the aircraft hold an attitude hands-off.

  136. Q136. In flight you see the oil pressure fluctuating and oil temperature is increasing, what should you do?

    • Land ASAPCorrect answer
    • The oil temperature sensor is faulty so inform the engineer at the end of the flight
    • The oil temperature gauge is faulty so inform the engineer at the end of the flight
    Why: Fluctuating oil pressure together with rising oil temperature indicates a genuine lubrication failure, not a faulty gauge. Loss of oil supply will quickly destroy the engine, so the correct action is to land as soon as possible.

  137. Q137. What happens when cool air goes over the engine?

    • Increased dragCorrect answer
    • Increased lift
    • Decreased lift
    • Decreased thrust
    Why: Forcing cooling air over and around the engine and through the cowling absorbs energy from the airflow. This cooling drag is an additional component of parasite drag, so passing cool air over the engine increases drag.

  138. Q138. VSI is based on what?

    • Static pressureCorrect answer
    • Dynamic pressure
    • Pitot pressure
    Why: The vertical speed indicator measures the rate of change of static pressure. A calibrated leak meters air into or out of the capsule so the pressure difference, and hence the needle deflection, is proportional to rate of climb or descent.

  139. Q139. Besides increasing lift, what do trailing edge flaps do?

    • Reduces parasite drag
    • Reduces the stalling speedCorrect answer
    • Moves the center of pressure forward
    • Increases the stall angle of attack
    Why: By raising the wing's lift coefficient at a given angle of attack, trailing-edge flaps allow the wing to support the aircraft's weight at a lower speed, so they reduce the stalling speed as well as increasing lift.

  140. Q140. Dynamic stability is:

    • The initial motion of a body after it has been disturbed from equilibrium
    • Subsequent motion of a body after it has been disturbed from equilibriumCorrect answer
    • Difficulty of stopping a moving body or changing the direction of travel
    • Tendency of a body to continue moving at a certain velocity
    Why: Dynamic stability concerns the subsequent motion of a body after it has been disturbed from equilibrium, that is, whether the oscillations that follow damp out, stay constant or diverge. The very first reaction is static stability.

  141. Q141. Lateral axis runs:

    • Inwards & outwards, diagonally through the A/C fuselage
    • Up and down, vertically through the A/C fuselage
    • Left and right, sideways through the A/C fuselageCorrect answer
    Why: The lateral (pitch) axis runs left to right, sideways through the fuselage, passing through the centre of gravity. The aircraft pitches about this axis; rotation about it is controlled by the elevator.

  142. Q142. Slotted flaps are characterised by:

    • High pressure air from below the wing flowing through a slot to re energise boundary layer flow over the flapCorrect answer
    • Only the lower surface of the aerofoil moving
    • Moving back, increasing the wing area
    Why: A slotted flap leaves a gap (slot) between the wing and the deflected flap. High-pressure air from beneath the wing flows up through the slot to re-energise the boundary layer over the flap's upper surface, delaying separation and giving a large lift increase.

  143. Q143. When producing lift the downwash will be:

    • Be less than upwash
    • Exceed the upwashCorrect answer
    • Be parallel to the relative airflow
    • Same as upwash
    Why: An aerofoil generating lift deflects the air downward more than the upwash ahead of it raises it, so net downwash exceeds the upwash. This downward momentum imparted to the air is the reaction that produces lift.

  144. Q144. Which is correct regarding a flat plate?

    • The flow over the upper surface very quickly separated with an increasing angle of attackCorrect answer
    • Total reaction acts at a 90 degree angle to the relative airflow around the flat plate
    • The sharp edges of a flat plate assist in producing a smooth deflected airflow
    Why: A thin flat plate has no leading-edge curvature to guide the flow, so the airflow over its upper surface separates very quickly as angle of attack increases. It therefore stalls at a low angle, unlike a properly cambered aerofoil.

  145. Q145. At the maximum critical angle of attack the:

    • CL is meximisedCorrect answer
    • Aerofoil stops producing lift
    • Lift/drag ratio is meximised
    • CD is maximised
    Why: The coefficient of lift increases with angle of attack up to the critical (stalling) angle, where CL is maximised. Beyond this angle the airflow separates and lift falls away, so CLmax coincides with the critical angle.

  146. Q146. In a steady climb:

    • Lift is equal to mass
    • Lift less than massCorrect answer
    • Lift greater than mass
    • Thrust equal to drag
    Why: In a steady climb the wing's lift is slightly less than the weight, because a forward component of thrust supports part of the weight and lift acts perpendicular to the (inclined) flight path rather than vertically.

  147. Q147. Aircraft exhibit a tendency to roll (or drop a wing) at the point of stall, this is caused by:

    • One wing reaching (critical stalling angle) angle of attack before the other wingCorrect answer
    • The pilot instantaneously inducing a roll by not pulling back evenly
    • A lack of aileron effectiveness on one wing
    • Increased drag on the higher wing causing yaw and (through secondary effect) roll
    Why: Wings rarely reach the stall perfectly evenly; one wing reaches the critical stalling angle of attack just before the other. That wing loses lift first and drops, producing the characteristic wing drop and roll at the stall.

  148. Q148. The lower flow in the boundary layer slows to a stop and begins to reverse at the:

    • Separation pointCorrect answer
    • Transition point
    • Critical angle of attack
    • Reversal point
    Why: As the boundary layer moves into the adverse pressure gradient on the rear of the aerofoil it loses energy until the flow nearest the surface stops and reverses. The point where this reversal begins, and the flow leaves the surface, is the separation point.

  149. Q149. The drag generated by a windmilling propeller:

    • Can be as high as a solid disc of the same diameterCorrect answer
    • Is increased by feathering the blades
    • Reduces as airspeed increases
    • Is the same as the drag generated by a propeller in reverse thrust
    Why: A windmilling propeller is being driven by the airflow rather than producing thrust. The flat blade angles present a large obstruction, so its drag can be almost as high as that of a solid disc of the same diameter; feathering the blades minimises this drag.

  150. Q150. The trailing edge flaps on most aircrafts:

    • Reduces upwash when aircraft enter ground effect, thereby reducing the landing roll
    • Are designed to operate asymmetrically
    • Reduces downwash causing the nose to pitch down
    • Have an airspeed limit for flight with flaps extendedCorrect answer
    Why: Extended flaps create large loads and drag, so every aircraft has a maximum flap-extended speed (VFE), shown by the upper end of the white arc on the ASI, above which the flaps must not be used or remain extended.

  151. Q151. In a stall, aircraft tend to sink with relative airflow coming from:

    • Below, tending to reduce the angle of attack
    • Below, tending to maintain the stalling angle of attackCorrect answer
    • Above, tending to maintain the stalling angle of attack
    • Above, tending to reduce the angle of attack
    Why: Once stalled the aircraft sinks along a steeply descending path, so the relative airflow comes from below. This keeps the angle of attack at or above the stalling angle, which is why the stall persists until the angle of attack is reduced by lowering the nose.

  152. Q152. The breakdown of airflow from laminar flow to turbulent flow about the airframe or its non-lift producing attachments will:

    • Increase parasite dragCorrect answer
    • Increase induced drag
    • Decrease interference drag
    • Decrease form drag
    Why: Where smooth laminar flow breaks down into turbulent flow over the airframe and its non-lifting parts, the surface and form drag rise. This is an increase in parasite drag, the drag not associated with the production of lift.

  153. Q153. The air in the boundary layer which is against the surface of the aerofoil is brought to rest by:

    • Static pressure
    • Surface frictionCorrect answer
    • The adverse pressure gradient
    • Density of air
    Why: The layer of air in direct contact with the surface is held stationary by surface friction (viscous shear). Successive layers further out move progressively faster, forming the velocity gradient of the boundary layer.

  154. Q154. A small amount of top rudder may be applied during recovery from a wing drop stall to:

    • Un-stall wings
    • Pitch the nose back towards the horizon
    • Roll wings levelCorrect answer
    • Prevent further yaw
    Why: After a wing-drop stall a touch of rudder towards the higher wing (top rudder) yaws the aircraft to help bring the wings level without using aileron, which near the stall could deepen the stall on the down-going wing.

  155. Q155. As aircraft approaches stall:

    • Control effectiveness increases
    • Nose attitude pitches up
    • Noise level increases
    • Control effectiveness reducesCorrect answer
    Why: Approaching the stall the airspeed and dynamic pressure are low and the airflow over the controls is becoming disturbed, so the flight controls become sloppy and control effectiveness reduces.

  156. Q156. Lift is the component of total aerodynamic reaction which is acting:

    • Perpendicular to the relative airflowCorrect answer
    • Perpendicular to the total reaction
    • Parallel to the direction of flight
    • Parallel to the relative airflow
    Why: The total aerodynamic reaction is resolved into two components: lift, defined as the part acting perpendicular to the relative airflow, and drag, the part acting parallel to it. Lift is therefore by definition at right angles to the relative airflow.

  157. Q157. What measures the current of the load?

    • Ammeter in a seriesCorrect answer
    • Voltmeter in a series
    • Ammeter in parallel
    • Voltmeter in parallel
    Why: Current through a load is measured with an ammeter connected in series, so the whole load current flows through it. A voltmeter, by contrast, measures potential difference and is connected in parallel.

  158. Q158. Direction indicator precession not more than?

    • 4 degree / hourCorrect answer
    • 1 degree / hour
    • 4 degree / sec
    Why: A serviceable direction indicator (heading indicator) should drift due to real and apparent precession by no more than about 4 degrees per hour. Greater wander indicates an unserviceable instrument, and it must be realigned with the compass periodically.

  159. Q159. Caution range on ASI is what colour?

    • Orange
    • Red
    • YellowCorrect answer
    • White
    Why: On the airspeed indicator the yellow arc marks the caution range, the speeds between normal operating limit (VNO) and never-exceed speed (VNE), which may be used only in smooth air. The red line at the top is VNE.

  160. Q160. White colour arc on the ASI represents?

    • Flaps operating rangeCorrect answer
    • Normal Ops
    • Caution
    Why: The white arc on the ASI is the flap operating range. Its lower end is the flaps-down stalling speed (VS0) and its upper end is the maximum flap-extended speed (VFE), within which the flaps may be used.

  161. Q161. Power reduced with IAS increasing, what could happen to the engine?

    • Pre-ignition
    • Detonation
    • Shock coolingCorrect answer
    Why: Sharply reducing power while airspeed increases sends a blast of cold air over a hot engine, cooling the cylinders too rapidly. This shock cooling can crack cylinder heads, so power changes should be gradual in the descent.

  162. Q162. Function of the idle cut-off:

    • Stop the fuel/air reaching the inlet manifoldCorrect answer
    • Stop the engine by cutting off supply of fuel at the carburettor
    • Stop the engine by cutting off supply of air
    • Reduce the flow of fuel at low rpm
    Why: Moving the mixture to idle cut-off stops fuel/air mixture reaching the inlet manifold, starving the cylinders of fuel so the engine stops. Shutting down on the mixture rather than the magnetos leaves no combustible charge in the cylinders.

  163. Q163. What is the danger of applying only partial carburettor heat in an aircraft which does not have a carburettor air temperature gauge?

    • May increase the temperature to the range where fuel vaporization is reduced, thereby losing power
    • May reduce the fuel/air ratio into the extent that engine power is no longer sufficient to balance prop torque
    • May reduce the fuel/air ratio into the range where the risk of detonation is high
    • May raise the temperature of the induction air into the temperature range which is most conducive to carburettor icingCorrect answer
    Why: Partial carburettor heat may only warm the induction air into the temperature band that is actually most conducive to ice forming, instead of melting existing ice. Without a carburettor air temperature gauge you cannot tell, so full heat is used.

  164. Q164. At constant throttle setting as altitude increase, the volume of air entering the carburettor:

    • Increases, with the density and weight also increasing
    • Decreases, while the density and weight increases
    • Decreases, with the density and weight also decreasing
    • Stays the same, while the density and weight decreasesCorrect answer
    Why: At a fixed throttle setting the engine draws roughly the same volume of air per cycle whatever the height, but as altitude increases that air is less dense, so its mass and weight fall. This falling air density is exactly why the mixture must be leaned as you climb.

  165. Q165. If power is reduced and airspeed increases too quickly, air-cooled engines are susceptible to:

    • Shock coolingCorrect answer
    • Detonation
    • Pre-ignition
    • Induction icing
    Why: Cutting power while speed builds rapidly passes a stream of cold air over hot cylinders, cooling them faster than the metal can tolerate. Air-cooled engines are therefore susceptible to shock cooling, which can crack cylinders.

  166. Q166. A tab-type stall warning device, commonly fitted to the leading edge of the wing on a light aeroplane, operates:

    • At low speed when the lack of airflow can no longer hold the tab up
    • Because the changing airflow near the critical angle of attack lifts the tabCorrect answer
    • By disturbing the airflow over the wing which is then felt by the pilot as buffet
    • By rattling in the disturbed airflow when close to the stall
    Why: The leading-edge stall-warning tab sits where the stagnation point moves as angle of attack increases. Near the critical angle the changing airflow lifts the tab, closing a switch that sounds the warning before the wing actually stalls.

  167. Q167. This process occurs when a conductor passes through a magnetic field and is called:

    • Electromagnetic impedance
    • Electromagnetic inductionCorrect answer
    • Electromagnetic conduction
    • Electromagnetic reactance
    Why: Moving a conductor through a magnetic field (or changing the field through it) generates an electromotive force in the conductor. This is electromagnetic induction, the principle behind generators, alternators and magnetos.

  168. Q168. By comparison with a tailwheel configuration, a tricycle undercarriage aircraft:

    • 1)Is more prone to cross-wind instability
    • Has improved forward visibility on the groundCorrect answer
    • Is harder to steer on the ground
    • Has improved propeller tip clearance
    Why: With a nosewheel the fuselage sits roughly level on the ground rather than nose-high, so a tricycle undercarriage gives the pilot improved forward visibility while taxiing, and is also more directionally stable on the ground.

  169. Q169. On a light aircraft, what can normally be stated about the design of a nose wheel compared to a mainwheel?

    • It is of a heavier construction and carries more weight
    • It is of a heavier construction to resist nose wheel 1st touchdowns
    • It is of a lighter construction as it carries less weightCorrect answer
    • It is of a lighter construction to aid take-off rotation
    Why: The mainwheels carry most of the aircraft's weight, while the nosewheel carries only a small share. The nosewheel can therefore be of lighter construction; it is not built heavier than the mainwheels.

  170. Q170. If there is a leak in the static line in an unpressurised aircraft and cabin air enters the system, the altimeter will:

    • Underread significantlyCorrect answer
    • Not be affected
    • Not respond to changes in altitude
    • Display ‘cabin altitude’
    Why: In flight the cabin of an unpressurised aircraft is at a higher pressure than the outside static air. If cabin air leaks into the static line, the altimeter senses this higher pressure as a lower altitude, so it underreads significantly.

  171. Q171. What type of control system will operate flight controls on a typical light aircraft?

    • Fly-by-wire
    • MechanicalCorrect answer
    • Hydraulic
    • Pneumatic
    Why: Typical light aircraft use a simple mechanical control system, with cables, rods, pulleys and bellcranks linking the cockpit controls directly to the surfaces. Fly-by-wire and powered hydraulic systems are features of larger, more complex aircraft.

  172. Q172. What two functions does impulse coupling fulfil within a magneto ignition system?

    • It provides a short and sudden acceleration of the rotating magnet and it retards the ignition timingCorrect answer
    • It provides a short and sudden acceleration of the rotating magnet and it advances the ignition timing
    • It provides a short and sudden acceleration of the rotating coils and it retards the ignition timing
    • It provides a short and sudden acceleration of the rotating coils and it advances the ignition timing
    Why: The impulse coupling momentarily holds and then suddenly releases the magnet to spin it rapidly, giving a hot spark at low cranking speed, and at the same time it retards the spark timing for easier, kickback-free starting.

  173. Q173. On a three-pointer altimeter, the long medium thick pointer shows:

    • Tens of feet
    • Hundreds of feetCorrect answer
    • Thousands of feet
    • Tens of thousands of feet
    Why: On a three-pointer sensitive altimeter the longest pointer reads hundreds of feet, sweeping one full turn of the dial every 1,000 ft. The shorter, wider pointer reads thousands of feet and the small pointer or striped sector reads tens of thousands.

  174. Q174. When recovering from a wing drop stall, the first action is to:

    • Apply full power
    • Roll the wings level with aileron
    • Ease control column centrally forward
    • Roll wings level with rudderCorrect answer
    Why: In a wing-drop stall the priority is to stop the yaw and roll without aggravating the stall, so the first action is to roll the wings level with rudder; using aileron at this point could deepen the stall on the lower wing.

  175. Q175. An aft CG will:

    • Decreased controllability in a roll
    • Decreased longitudinal stabilityCorrect answer
    • Increased longitudinal stability
    • Increased controllability in pitch
    Why: Moving the centre of gravity aft shortens the moment arm to the tailplane, reducing the restoring pitching moment. This decreases longitudinal (pitch) stability, making the aircraft more sensitive and harder to recover in pitch.

  176. Q176. Form Drag:

    • Is inversely proportional to the increase in airspeed
    • Is unaffected by changes in airspeed
    • Increases proportionally with an increase in airspeed
    • Increases with the square of the increased airspeedCorrect answer
    Why: Form (pressure) drag is a parasite drag that, like all parasite drag, increases with the square of the airspeed. Doubling the speed therefore roughly quadruples the form drag.

  177. Q177. A gravity feed fuel system, as fitted to some aircraft:

    • Relies on a head of fuel pressure created by the tank being above the engineCorrect answer
    • Incorporates a low powered electric fuel pump to pressurise the fuel line
    • Has a forward facing fuel vent to provide the positive pressure differential essential to ensure fuel flow
    • Never has any fuel filters because they would restrict the low-pressure flow
    Why: A gravity-feed system, typical of high-wing aircraft, relies simply on the fuel tank being mounted above the engine so the head (weight) of fuel provides the pressure to flow down to the carburettor, with no pump required.

  178. Q178. Primary Indication that the wing has stalled is:

    • Nose pitch up
    • Nose pitch down
    • Buffeting or juddering through the airframe and/or controlsCorrect answer
    • An uncontrolled roll
    Why: As the wing stalls the separated, turbulent airflow strikes the rear fuselage and tail, and the primary indication felt by the pilot is buffeting or juddering through the airframe and controls.

  179. Q179. Swirling air masses trailing downstream from the aircraft's wing tips are also known as:

    • Form drag
    • Wake turbulenceCorrect answer
    • Cross-Wind
    • Slipstream
    Why: The pressure difference between the upper and lower surfaces causes air to spill around the wing tips, rolling up into strong trailing vortices. These swirling air masses streaming behind the tips are wake turbulence (wing-tip vortices).

  180. Q180. If an item, such as a headset, is left near a magnetic compass for a long period of time:

    • The accuracy of compass can be permanently damagedCorrect answer
    • Residual dip will be permanently removed from compass
    • Variation of compass can be permanently altered
    Why: A magnetised item like a headset left beside the compass for a long time can permanently magnetise nearby components and so permanently impair the compass's accuracy, which is why magnetic objects must be kept clear of it.

  181. Q181. How do pilots check for fluid loss from a simple hydraulic system such as a wheel brake?

    • The fluid can’t be seen but a Low fluid light will illuminate if levels are too low
    • Fluid level indication in the cockpit will be low
    • Fluid reservoir sight glass level will have decreasedCorrect answer
    • The brakes should operate normally with no fluid leakage apparent
    Why: A simple wheel-brake hydraulic system has a fluid reservoir with a sight glass. A loss of fluid is checked visually: the level shown in the reservoir sight glass will have decreased, indicating a leak.

  182. Q182. A simple altimeter is constructed by:

    • Feeding pitot pressure into a capsule and indicating its expansion or contraction relative to dynamic pressure
    • Metering the airflow out of a flexible capsule which is vented to the prevailing static pressure
    • Measuring the expansion or contraction of a sealed aneroid capsule reacting to the change in the prevailing static pressureCorrect answer
    • Feeding total pressure into a capsule and indicating its expansion or contraction relative to the static pressure
    Why: A simple altimeter contains a sealed aneroid capsule. As the aircraft climbs the surrounding static pressure falls and the capsule expands; the instrument measures this expansion (or contraction) and displays it as altitude.

  183. Q183. A fixed pitch propellor operates at a constant:

    • Angle of Attack
    • RPM
    • Torque
    • Blade angleCorrect answer
    Why: A fixed-pitch propeller's blades are set at one constant blade angle and cannot be altered in flight. Its RPM and the blade angle of attack vary with airspeed and power, but the physical blade angle stays fixed.

  184. Q184. The needle type of mixture control in an aero engine carburettor functions by:

    • Opening the valve which eliminates pressure drop in throat of carburettor
    • Controlling flow of fuel into main metering or idling jetsCorrect answer
    • Varying air pressure
    • Restricting flow of air
    Why: A needle-type mixture control raises or lowers a tapered needle in the metering passage, directly controlling the flow of fuel into the main metering and idling jets, and so adjusting the fuel/air ratio.

  185. Q185. Power enrichment to provide excess fuel to assist in additional cooling at high power is achieved by:

    • Opening acceleration pump valveCorrect answer
    • Metering extra fuel directly into cylinders through primer pump
    • Restricting flow of air into carburettor
    • Opening second fuel metering jet
    Why: At high power a power-enrichment device adds extra fuel beyond the normal metered amount, opening the acceleration/enrichment pump valve. The surplus fuel does not all burn but evaporates, helping to cool the cylinders and prevent detonation.

  186. Q186. What components would be used in design of simple hydraulic system?

    • Reservoir, force link, selector valve, actuator
    • Force link, pump, trim valve, reservoir
    • Reservoir, pump, trim valve, actuator
    • Reservoir, pump, selector valve, actuatorCorrect answer
    Why: A basic hydraulic system needs a reservoir to store fluid, a pump to pressurise it, a selector valve to direct the flow, and an actuator (jack) to convert that pressure into mechanical movement.

  187. Q187. A gyroscope is basically a:

    • Wheel which rotates at high speed
    • Venturi reacting to air sucked through it
    • Stable mass which reacts to inertial forcesCorrect answer
    • Fixed prism through which light at various wavelengths is passed
    Why: A gyroscope is essentially a stable mass (a spinning rotor) whose angular momentum makes it react to inertial forces, giving it rigidity in space and precession. These properties are exploited in gyroscopic flight instruments.

  188. Q188. What property of gyroscopes make them useful in aircraft instruments?

    • Low power demand
    • Its microscopic size
    • Gyroscopic inertiaCorrect answer
    • Hysteresis
    Why: A spinning gyroscope possesses gyroscopic inertia (rigidity in space), tending to keep its spin axis pointing in a fixed direction. This stable reference is what makes gyroscopes useful in attitude, heading and turn instruments.

  189. Q189. What is the minimum safety load that is approved to the design load to find ultimate load limit?

    • 1.2
    • 1.5Correct answer
    • 1.7
    • 2.5
    Why: The design ultimate load is the design limit load multiplied by a safety factor of 1.5. This factor ensures the structure can withstand 50% more than the maximum load expected in service without failing.

  190. Q190. A turbocharger is the name given to a supercharger which is driven by:

    • A gearbox in the engine
    • Exhaust gasesCorrect answer
    • Compressed air bottle
    • Propellor gearbox
    Why: A turbocharger is a supercharger whose compressor is driven by a turbine spun by the engine's exhaust gases, rather than by a mechanical gear drive. It uses otherwise wasted exhaust energy to boost induction pressure.

  191. Q191. What type of gyro does a turn indicator use to generate presentation of an aircraft’s rate of turn?

    • RateCorrect answer
    • Space
    • Tied
    • Earth
    Why: A turn indicator uses a rate gyro. The gyro is restrained by a spring so that precession, and hence the displacement of the pointer, is proportional to the aircraft's rate of turn.

  192. Q192. A magnetic item placed near a magnetic compass can alter its:

    • Isogonal
    • DeviationCorrect answer
    • Variation
    • Pendulosity
    Why: Magnetic items near the compass create local magnetic fields that deflect the needle, altering its deviation, the difference between compass north and magnetic north. Variation is a property of the Earth's field and is unaffected.

  193. Q193. The open-ended tube in a pitot head is used to sense:

    • Ambient pressure
    • Dynamic pressure
    • Static pressure
    • Total PressureCorrect answer
    Why: The forward-facing open tube of the pitot head senses total (pitot) pressure, the sum of static pressure plus the dynamic pressure of the airflow being brought to rest at the tube. Subtracting static pressure then yields the dynamic pressure used by the ASI.

  194. Q194. What is the cause of buffer through the airframe and/or controls as an aircraft approaches critical angle of attack?

    • Growth of turbulent wake behind wing impinging of fuselage and tailCorrect answer
    • Increased propellor slipstream impinging on wings and fuselage
    • Pilot feedback through controls at reduced airspeed
    • Rapid movement at centre of pressure at wing tip interfering with ailerons
    Why: Approaching the critical angle of attack the airflow separates and forms a growing turbulent wake behind the wing. This wake strikes the fuselage and tail, and the resulting vibration is felt as pre-stall buffet through the airframe and controls.

  195. Q195. Difference between a trim tab and balance tab?

    • Trim tab only moves when the pilot moves trim control, while a balance tab moves automatically Correct answer
    • Trim tab relieves control forces felt by the pilot, while balance tab increases control forces felt by the pilot.
    Why: A trim tab moves only when the pilot operates the trim control and stays put to hold a setting, whereas a balance tab is linked to move automatically (opposite to the control surface) whenever the surface is deflected, to lighten the control force.

  196. Q196. All aircraft are considered to have three mutually perpendicular references which all passes through the

    • Aircraft datum
    • Aerodynamic centre
    • Centre of pressure
    • Centre of gravityCorrect answer
    Why: The three mutually perpendicular axes (longitudinal, lateral and normal) all intersect at the centre of gravity. The aircraft rotates about these axes through its CG, which is why balance and CG position are central to handling.

  197. Q197. Back suction type mixture control in an aero engine carburettor is known as:

    • Float camber depression type
    • Jet restriction type
    • Poppet Valve type
    • Negative Pressure typeCorrect answer
    Why: The back-suction mixture control works by applying a reduced (negative) pressure above the fuel in the float chamber, lowering the pressure differential that drives fuel from the jets and so leaning the mixture. It is therefore the negative-pressure type.

  198. Q198. Indirect fuel Injection system, fuel pressure is:

    • Varied by the air throttle metering valve according to the altitude
    • Varied by the air throttle metering valve according to the Engine speedCorrect answer
    • Kept constant by the fuel metering valve according to mixture control set
    • Varied by the mixture control valve according to altitude
    Why: In an indirect (continuous-flow) fuel injection system the fuel pressure, and hence the fuel delivered, is varied by the throttle/air metering valve in proportion to engine speed and airflow, so the mixture matches the engine's demand.

  199. Q199. Function of baffles around an aero-engine is to:

    • Increase the speed of the cooling air
    • Stop the cooling air from leaking out of the cowling
    • Reduce the speed of the cooling air
    • Distribute the cooling air as evenly as possibleCorrect answer
    Why: Baffles and deflectors guide and distribute the cooling air as evenly as possible around all the cylinders and over their fins, ensuring even cooling so that rearward or shadowed cylinders do not overheat.

  200. Q200. What is the name given to the oil reservoir below the engine:

    • Barrel
    • SumpCorrect answer
    • Can
    Why: The reservoir at the base of the engine that collects and holds the lubricating oil is called the sump. In a wet-sump engine the oil pump draws directly from it; a dry-sump engine pumps oil to a separate tank.

  201. Q201. Airspeed Indicator provides reading of airspeed:

    • True Airspeed
    • Indicated AirspeedCorrect answer
    • Calibrated Airspeed
    Why: The airspeed indicator displays indicated airspeed (IAS), the raw reading derived from dynamic pressure. Correcting IAS for instrument and position errors gives calibrated airspeed, and correcting for density gives true airspeed.

  202. Q202. Capsule in a vertical speed indicator is vented to the prevailing:

    • Static PressureCorrect answer
    • Total Pressure
    • Pitot Pressure
    • Dynamic Pressure
    Why: In a VSI the capsule receives static pressure directly, while the surrounding case is connected to the same static source through a calibrated leak. The capsule is therefore vented to the prevailing static pressure, and the lag created by the leak measures rate of climb or descent.

  203. Q203. A very important job of alternators to:

    • Provide power to the electrical system when engine is not working
    • Provide power to start the engine
    • Recharge aircraft batteryCorrect answer
    Why: While the engine runs, the alternator supplies the aircraft's electrical loads and recharges the battery, replacing the energy the battery gave up during starting. It cannot, however, provide power when the engine is stopped.

  204. Q204. An aircraft is “in trim” when:

    • Small force required to hold the control in its current position
    • Maintains a constant attitude without the pilot having to exert any steady pressure to controlCorrect answer
    Why: An aircraft is in trim when it maintains a constant attitude without the pilot having to apply any steady pressure to the controls. The trim tabs are set so the control forces are balanced to zero for that flight condition.

  205. Q205. Mass balancing is applied to control surfaces which are prone to flutter by:

    • Automatically deploying a small control surface in the opposite direction to the main surface
    • Insetting the hinge line of the control surface
    • Adding extra mass to the control to bring its centre of gravity close to the hinge lineCorrect answer
    • Design the control surface to have a portion which protrudes ahead of hinge line
    Why: Mass balancing combats flutter by adding weight (usually forward of the hinge) to bring the control surface's centre of gravity onto or close to the hinge line. This stops inertial forces from coupling with aerodynamic forces to drive flutter.

  206. Q206. Lift/Drag ratio measures:

    • Aerodynamic EfficiencyCorrect answer
    • Lifting Capability
    • Loading
    • Effectiveness
    Why: The lift/drag ratio is a direct measure of an aerofoil's aerodynamic efficiency, the lift produced for each unit of drag incurred. The angle of attack giving the highest L/D ratio gives the most efficient flight (best glide and range).

  207. Q207. In a steady power on descent:

    • Lift equals to mass
    • Drag greater than thrustCorrect answer
    • Drag equals thrust
    • Lift greater than mass
    Why: In a steady powered descent a component of weight acts forward along the flight path and assists thrust, so to keep the speed steady the drag must be greater than thrust. The forces still balance overall along the descending path.

  208. Q208. At low speed in S&L:

    • Thrust must be less than drag
    • Drag exceeds thrust
    • Lift is maintained equal to massCorrect answer
    • Lift is decreased
    Why: In straight-and-level flight the aircraft must produce lift equal to its weight regardless of speed. At low speed this is achieved with a high angle of attack; lift is still maintained equal to the mass.

  209. Q209. Name given to area on leading edge of an aerofoil where flow is brought to rest:

    • Separation Point
    • Boundary Layer
    • Stagnation PointCorrect answer
    • Resting Area
    Why: At the leading edge the airflow divides and is momentarily brought completely to rest along the dividing streamline. This point of zero velocity and peak static pressure is the stagnation point.

  210. Q210. Shear stress in the airflow around the aerofoil is highest in the:

    • Laminar boundary flow
    • Wake behind the Aerofoil
    • Streamline flow ahead of the aerofoil
    • Turbulent boundary layer flowCorrect answer
    Why: Shear stress (skin friction) is greatest where the air layers are most agitated and mixing energetically, which is in the turbulent boundary layer flow. The smoother laminar boundary layer produces much lower shear stress.

  211. Q211. At high speed in S&L:

    • Lift is increased
    • Thrust must be greater than drag
    • Drag exceeds thrust
    • Lift is maintained equal to weightCorrect answer
    Why: In straight-and-level flight lift must always equal weight. At high speed this is achieved at a low angle of attack, but lift is still maintained equal to the weight, not increased.

  212. Q212. Name given to area on leading edge of an aerofoil where flow is brought to rest:

    • Separation Point
    • Boundary Layer
    • Stagnation PointCorrect answer
    • Resting Area
    Why: The point near the leading edge where the dividing airflow is brought completely to rest, giving zero velocity and maximum static pressure, is the stagnation point.

  213. Q213. Mass balancing is applied to control surfaces which are prone to flutter by:

    • Automatically deploying a small control surface in the opposite direction to the main surface
    • Insetting the hinge line of the control surface
    • Adding extra mass to the control to bring its cg close to the hinge lineCorrect answer
    • Design the control surface to have a portion which protrudes ahead of hinge line
    Why: Mass balancing prevents flutter by adding extra mass to the control surface to bring its centre of gravity close to the hinge line. This removes the inertial out-of-balance that would otherwise couple with aerodynamic forces to cause flutter.

  214. Q214. What is the cause of buffer through the airframe and/or controls as an aircraft approaches critical angle of attack?

    • Growth of turbulent wake behind wing impinging or fuselage and tailCorrect answer
    • Increased propellor slipstream impinging on wings and fuselage
    • Pilot feedback through controls at reduced airspeed
    • Rapid movement at centre of pressure at wing tip interfering with ailerons
    Why: Near the critical angle of attack the airflow over the wing separates into a growing turbulent wake. This wake impinges on the fuselage and tail, and the vibration it sets up is felt by the pilot as pre-stall buffet.

  215. Q215. The needle type of mixture control in an aero engine carburettor functions by:

    • Opening valve which eliminates pressure drop in throat of carburettor
    • Controlling flow of fuel into main metering or idling jetsCorrect answer
    • Varying air pressure
    • Restricting flow of air
    Why: A needle-type mixture control moves a tapered needle within the metering passage to control the flow of fuel into the main metering and idling jets, thereby setting the fuel/air ratio supplied to the engine.

  216. Q216. How do you check if a cooling system for the engine is working?

    • Check oil temperature
    • Check oil pressure
    • Check CHT temperatureCorrect answer
    Why: Engine cooling is judged from the cylinder head temperature (CHT) gauge, which reflects how effectively heat is being removed from the cylinders. Oil temperature and pressure relate mainly to the lubrication system, not directly to cylinder cooling.

  217. Q217. What type of magneto system is most used by today’s modern aircraft?

    • Dual ignition, independent systemCorrect answer
    • Single ignition system
    • Triple ignition, independent system
    • Dual magneto, redundant system.
    Why: Modern light aircraft use a dual, independent ignition system: two separate magnetos each fire their own spark plug in every cylinder. This gives redundancy if one system fails and more complete, efficient combustion from twin sparks.

  218. Q218. An electrical system that uses aircraft structure to return the current is called:

    • Single phase circuit
    • Earth return circuitCorrect answer
    • Diode return circuit
    • Dipole circuit
    Why: In an earth-return (single-wire) system the metal airframe itself forms the return path for the current back to the battery, so only one insulated wire is needed to each component, saving weight and wiring.

  219. Q219. There’s increasing oil temperature and pressure. What should you do?

    • Means that oil pressure gauge is spoilt, consult mechanic ASAP
    • Means that oil temperature gauge is spoilt, consult mechanic ASAP
    • Land as soon as possible.Correct answer
    Why: A simultaneous rise in BOTH oil temperature and oil pressure is a genuine engine warning, not a gauge fault - both gauges cannot be wrong at once, and the combination points to a lubrication or cooling problem (e.g. restricted oil flow). The correct action is to treat it as a potential engine failure and land as soon as possible.

  220. Q220. What does auto mixture control use to limit fuel flow to carburettor jets?

    • An aneroid capsule
    • Static pressure sensing
    • An air metering port
    • A barometric compensatorCorrect answer
    Why: An automatic mixture control uses a barometric compensator (an aneroid that senses ambient pressure/density). As the aircraft climbs and the air thins, it restricts fuel flow to the jets to keep the fuel/air ratio correct.

  221. Q221. Which components have a primary purpose of dealing with the structural stresses in flight:

    • Spars, ribs, fins, braces
    • Stringers, spars, ribs, bracesCorrect answer
    • Oleo, stringers, spars, ribs
    • Stringers, spars, tailplane
    Why: The structural members that primarily carry flight loads are the stringers, spars, ribs and braces, which together take the bending, shear and torsion. Fins and the tailplane are aerodynamic surfaces, and oleos are part of the undercarriage.

  222. Q222. If asymmetry is detected in an aircraft’s electrical flap system, the flaps will:

    • Automatically move to a fully retracted position
    • Automatically move to a half-extended position
    • Remain frozen in the detected asymmetric positionCorrect answer
    • Automatically move to a fully extended position
    Why: If a flap asymmetry (one side extending more than the other) is sensed, the system shuts off flap drive and the flaps remain frozen in their current asymmetric position. This prevents a dangerous rolling moment that would worsen if the flaps kept moving.

  223. Q223. Thrust and drag are:

    • Considered to act in opposite directionsCorrect answer
    • Equal magnitude in level flight
    • Always equal and opposite forces
    • Always constant values
    Why: Thrust acts forward along the flight path and drag acts rearward, so they are considered to act in opposite directions. They are only equal in magnitude in steady (unaccelerated) flight, not at all times.

  224. Q224. When an aerofoil is producing lift, the downwash will:

    • Exceed the upwashCorrect answer
    • Be parallel to the relative airflow
    • Be less than the upwash
    • Be the same as the upwash
    Why: An aerofoil generating lift deflects the airflow downwards more than the upwash ahead of it lifts it, so the downwash exceeds the upwash. This net downward momentum given to the air is the reaction that creates lift.

  225. Q225. Induced drag is directly related to the amount of induced:

    • Downwash at leading edge
    • Upwash at leading edge
    • Downwash at trailing edgeCorrect answer
    • Upwash at trailing edge
    Why: Induced drag arises from the downwash generated at the trailing edge by the wing-tip vortices, which tilts the lift vector rearwards. The greater the trailing-edge downwash (largest at high angle of attack/low speed), the greater the induced drag.

  226. Q226. Trailing edge flaps on most modern aircraft:

    • Have an airspeed limit for flight with flaps extendedCorrect answer
    • Reduce downwash, causing nose pitch down
    • Reduce upwash when aircraft enters ground effect, thereby reducing landing roll
    • Are designed to operate asymmetrically
    Why: Because extended flaps produce high loads and drag, aircraft impose a maximum flap-extended speed (VFE). Flaps must not be extended, or left extended, above this airspeed limit, shown by the top of the white arc.

  227. Q227. What option best describes the wake turbulence behind an aeroplane?

    • Longest in calm windCorrect answer
    • Longest in turbulent wind
    • Behind a heavy jet at a range of up to 20 miles and up to 3000 feet below its cruise level
    • Not affected by either calm or turbulent wind
    Why: Wing-tip vortices linger longest in calm, still air because there is no wind to disperse or break them up. Turbulent or windy conditions mix and dissipate the vortices more quickly, so wake turbulence persists longest in calm wind.

  228. Q228. Which of the following options is correct regarding flat plate lift?

    • The sharp edges of a flat plate assist in producing smooth deflected airflow
    • Total reaction acts 90 degrees to relative airflow around the flat plate
    • Flat plates lack the thickness to contain strong spars, However, minimal form drag makes them ideal in all other respects
    • The flow over the flat plate’s upper surface very quickly separates with increasing angle of attackCorrect answer
    Why: A flat plate lacks leading-edge curvature to guide the airflow, so the flow over its upper surface separates very quickly as the angle of attack increases. It therefore stalls at a low angle and is an inefficient lifting surface.

  229. Q229. What is the thickness/chord ratio?

    • Maximum chord of the wing divided by its thickness given as a fraction
    • Maximum thickness of the wing divided by its chord given as a percentageCorrect answer
    • Mean chord line of the wing divided by its thickness given as a fraction
    • Mean camber line of the wing divided by its chord given as a percentage
    Why: The thickness/chord ratio expresses how thick an aerofoil is relative to its chord: the maximum thickness of the section divided by the chord length, given as a percentage. A typical light-aircraft wing section is around 12–15%.

  230. Q230. How does the pitot tube get rid of any icing?

    • ElectricityCorrect answer
    • Pneumatically, through heat produced from exhaust gases
    • Pneumatically, through heat produced by cabin
    • Hydraulically
    Why: The pitot tube is de-iced by an internal electrical heating element. Switching on pitot heat warms the tube to melt or prevent ice that would otherwise block it and cause the airspeed indicator to read incorrectly.

  231. Q231. How is impact pressure (dynamic pressure) measured?

    • Air velocity measured by pitot tube minus the static pressure
    • Dynamic pressure plus static pressure
    • Total pressure minus static pressureCorrect answer
    Why: Impact (dynamic) pressure is found by subtracting static pressure from the total (pitot) pressure. The pitot tube senses total pressure and the static port senses static; the difference is the dynamic pressure that drives the airspeed indicator.

  232. Q232. Which instruments rely on the pitot tube?

    • VSI
    • Altimeter
    • ASICorrect answer
    • All of the above
    Why: Only the airspeed indicator uses pitot (total) pressure, which it compares with static pressure to display speed. The altimeter and VSI work from static pressure alone, so they do not rely on the pitot tube.

  233. Q233. How do you minimise height loss during recovery from a stall?

    • Roll wings level using rudder
    • Full power and ease control stick forwardCorrect answer
    • Use ailerons to roll wings level
    • Use of rudder to correct for yaw
    Why: To recover from a stall with least height loss, simultaneously lower the angle of attack by easing the control column centrally forward to unstall the wing and apply full power to arrest the descent and accelerate away.

  234. Q234. That uses pitot pressure and static pressure is known as:

    • Dynamic head
    • Pitot headCorrect answer
    • Pressure sensor
    Why: A combined unit that senses both pitot (total) pressure and static pressure in one assembly is called a pitot head (pitot-static head). It feeds total pressure to the ASI and static pressure to the ASI, altimeter and VSI.

  235. Q235. Boundary layer flow change from laminar to turbulence flow at the:

    • Diversion point
    • Critical point
    • Separation point
    • Transition pointCorrect answer
    Why: The boundary layer starts laminar near the leading edge and, further back, changes to turbulent flow. The point where this change occurs is the transition point; the separation point is where the flow later leaves the surface entirely.

  236. Q236. Which of the following is not an advantage of dual ignition system?

    • Cheaper to maintainCorrect answer
    • Increased efficiency
    • Safer to use
    • Smoother combustion
    Why: A dual ignition system improves safety through redundancy and gives more efficient, smoother combustion from twin sparks. It is not cheaper to maintain, since two complete ignition systems cost more to service, so that is the odd one out.

  237. Q237. Aircraft return to original trim attitude:

    • Positive static and positive dynamic stabilityCorrect answer
    • Positive static and negative dynamic stability
    • Negative static and positive dynamic stability
    • Negative static and dynamic stability
    Why: An aircraft that returns to its original trimmed attitude after a disturbance shows positive static stability (it initially tends back) and positive dynamic stability (the resulting oscillation damps out over time).

  238. Q238. Which of the following engine cooling system increases surface area to cool air?

    • Baffles
    • FinCorrect answer
    • Cowling seal
    • Cowing flaps
    Why: Cooling fins are cast onto the cylinder barrels and heads specifically to enlarge the surface area in contact with the cooling airflow, carrying heat away more effectively. Baffles and cowl flaps only direct and meter that air; they add no surface area themselves.

  239. Q239. A light aircraft has 4 seats with one PIC and a passenger. The stalling speed will:

    • increase when the front passenger moves rearwards
    • Stall speed will not change no matter how the passengers moveCorrect answer
    • Decrease when rear passenger moves forward
    Why: Stalling speed depends on weight and load factor, not on where occupants sit. Moving passengers within the cabin shifts the centre of gravity but does not change the total weight, so the stalling speed does not change.

  240. Q240. Lift acts through the aircraft's:

    • Centre of pressureCorrect answer
    • Centre of lift
    • Aerodynamic centre
    Why: The total lift produced by the wing is taken to act through the centre of pressure, the single point on the chord where the distributed pressure forces are considered to be concentrated.

  241. Q241. The change in voltage of AC output is described as a sine curve. This means that the voltage:

    • Varies up and down according to energy demand
    • Remains constant but current changes
    • Builds to a peak and remains constant
    • Builds in one direction to a peak then reverses to fall in a corresponding trough in the other directionCorrect answer
    Why: In alternating current the voltage follows a sine curve: it builds in one direction to a peak, falls back through zero, then builds to a corresponding peak in the opposite direction and back again, repeating each cycle.

  242. Q242. How are errors caused by crosswind and unbalanced flight minimised in a basic static system?

    • Static port on both sides of aircraft
    • Use computer algorithm to calculate the unbalance factor and correct the static pressure
    • Installing port on optimal position determined by testingCorrect answer
    • Installing port in lee of structure of fuselage
    Why: Static-source (position) errors from sideslip, crosswind and unbalanced flight are minimised by locating the static port at the position on the fuselage, found by flight testing, where the pressure stays closest to true static across the flight envelope.

  243. Q243. What is the characteristic of a tapered wing?

    • Tip is elliptical in shape
    • Root chord is smaller than tip chord
    • Tip chord is smaller than root chordCorrect answer
    • Chord incidence at root is less that chord incidence at tip
    Why: A tapered wing narrows from root to tip, so its tip chord is smaller than its root chord. This planform reduces structural weight and induced drag compared with a constant-chord (rectangular) wing.

  244. Q244. The best L/D ratio occurs at:

    • Max cruise speed
    • Minimum drag speedCorrect answer
    • Lowest safe speed above stall
    • Stall AOA
    Why: The maximum lift/drag ratio occurs at the angle of attack where total drag is least, the minimum drag speed (VIMD). Flying at this speed gives the best glide range and the most efficient cruise for range.

  245. Q245. What is blade twist on a propellor?

    • Blade angle smaller at tip than hubCorrect answer
    • Blade angle smaller at hub than at tip
    • Propellor able to twist at its hub
    • Propellor has a uniform bank angle along its length
    Why: A propeller blade is twisted so the blade angle is smaller (finer) at the tip than at the hub. The tip travels much faster than the root, so reducing its angle keeps the angle of attack and therefore the thrust roughly even along the whole blade.

  246. Q246. Principle of operation of disc brake system:

    • friction shoes forced outwards on inside of a rotating drum
    • 2 friction pads forced inwards on inside of a rotating drum
    • 2 friction pads forced on sides of a discCorrect answer
    Why: A disc brake works by squeezing two friction pads against the flat sides of a rotating disc fixed to the wheel. This converts the wheel's rotational energy into heat through friction, slowing the aircraft.

  247. Q247. When intakes for both pitot pressure and separate static pressure in combined into a unit, the unit is called:

    • Static headCorrect answer
    • Pitot head
    • Dynamic head
    • Pressure sensor
    Why: When the pitot (total) pressure intake and a separate static pressure source are built into one combined unit, it is termed a static head (more precisely a pitot-static head). Naming reflects that it senses both pressures, not just dynamic.

  248. Q248. In an aircraft, a propellor rotates anti-clockwise as seen by the pilot. How will the prop torque reaction affect the aircraft on a take-off roll at high power?

    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing aircraft to swing rightCorrect answer
    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing aircraft to swing left
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing aircraft to swing right
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing aircraft to swing left
    Why: Engine torque reacts on the airframe opposite to propeller rotation, so an anti-clockwise propeller rolls the aircraft to the right. The added weight on the right tyre increases its rolling resistance, which yaws the nose right during the take-off roll.

  249. Q249. What can be found in the instrument case of a VSI?

    • Sealed aneroid capsuleCorrect answer
    • Perforated aneroid capsule
    • Flexible capsule
    Why: The vertical speed indicator's case is sealed and gas-tight; the rate of climb is sensed by comparing the capsule pressure with the case pressure that bleeds through a calibrated leak. The case therefore behaves as a sealed (aneroid-type) reference chamber.

  250. Q250. What are the most common types of fuel used in light aircrafts?

    • Diesel and Jet A1
    • AvGas 100LL and Jet A1
    • Jet A1 and AvGas 100
    • AvGas 100 and AvGas 100LLCorrect answer
    Why: Piston-engined light aircraft run on aviation gasoline, typically AVGAS 100 and the lower-lead AVGAS 100LL. These high-octane petrols resist detonation, unlike Jet A1 which is a kerosene for turbine engines.

  251. Q251. What device is used to measure and monitor battery charging and discharging?

    • AmmeterCorrect answer
    • Voltmeter
    • Suction gauge
    • Electrical pressure sensor
    Why: An ammeter shows the rate of current flow into or out of the battery, indicating whether it is being charged by the alternator or discharged. This lets the pilot monitor the health of the charging system.

  252. Q252. Creep marks will be present in light aircraft tyres if:

    • There is no inner tube
    • There is an inner tubeCorrect answer
    • The aircraft will be subjected to stresses when taking off on loose gravel or on concrete surfaces
    Why: Creep marks are paired alignment marks painted across the tyre and wheel rim on tubed tyres. If the tyre slips (creeps) on the rim the marks misalign, warning that the inner tube's valve may be strained or sheared.

  253. Q253. A relay can be thought of as:

    • A switch that protects you from excessive current
    • A switch that protects you from excessive voltage
    • An electrically operated switchCorrect answer
    Why: A relay is simply an electrically operated switch: a small control current energises a coil whose magnetic field closes (or opens) heavier contacts. This lets a low-power switch control a high-current circuit safely.

  254. Q254. An electric tachometer in an aircraft:

    • Is a 3-phase generator that produces current to provide RPM reading
    • Is a 1-phase generator that produces current to provide RPM readingCorrect answer
    • Provides reading to only 1 RPM gauge
    Why: An electric tachometer is a small single-phase AC generator driven by the engine; its output frequency is proportional to engine speed and drives the RPM gauge. The faster the engine turns, the higher the indicated RPM.

  255. Q255. In the direction of rotation, a gyroscope is free to move in:

    • Both the other 2 axes which are 90 degrees off the rotational axis
    • Only in one of the axes 90 degrees off the rotational axis at a time, but not both at the same timeCorrect answer
    • All directions
    Why: A spinning gyro is free to move (precess) about only one of the two axes at right angles to its spin axis at any given moment, in response to an applied force. This restricted freedom is what gives gyro instruments their stability and their characteristic precession.

  256. Q256. Airframe structure must be able to withstand:

    • Design limit load x 1.5 safety factorCorrect answer
    • 3 times the design limit load
    • Design limit load + Design ultimate load
    • Design ultimate load x 1.5 safety factor
    Why: The design ultimate load is the design limit load multiplied by a safety factor of 1.5. The structure must withstand this ultimate load without failure, giving a margin above the highest load expected in normal operation.

  257. Q257. Lift is a reaction force that:

    • Is perpendicular to the airflowCorrect answer
    • Is perpendicular to the total reaction
    • Ss parallel to the airflow
    Why: Lift is defined as the component of the total aerodynamic reaction that acts perpendicular (at right angles) to the relative airflow. The component acting parallel to the airflow is drag.

  258. Q258. How to know when landing gear is lowered and it is not locked in place?

    • Red or amber light flashing
    • Aural warning tone
    • Steady green light at landing gear cockpit light
    • No light at landing gear indicator lightCorrect answer
    Why: A green light confirms the gear is down AND locked. If the gear is selected down but no green indication appears, it has not locked into place, so the absence of the light is the warning the pilot must heed.

  259. Q259. When there is an asymmetrical lowering of flaps what happens when the asymmetry is detected?

    • Flaps will be automatically be lowered fully
    • Flaps will be automatically be raised up automatically
    • Flaps will be set to half way position
    • Flaps will freeze at the asymmetrical positionCorrect answer
    Why: If an electric flap system senses asymmetry (one flap moving differently from the other), it stops both flaps and freezes them where they are. This prevents a dangerous rolling moment that worsening asymmetry would create.

  260. Q260. Pitot tube is placed at the wrong location, what is this error called?

    • Position errorCorrect answer
    • Manufacturing error
    • Instrument error
    • Pressure error
    Why: Error arising because the pitot or static source is mounted where the local airflow is not truly representative of free-stream conditions is called position (or pressure) error. It depends on where the probe sits relative to the airframe.

  261. Q261. What does a wing strut do?

    • Transfer some load from wing loading to the fuselageCorrect answer
    • Contribute to lateral stability
    • Make AC more stable due to more parasite drag
    Why: A wing strut is a load-bearing brace that transfers part of the wing's bending and lift loads down into the fuselage. This allows a lighter wing structure than a fully cantilever wing would need.

  262. Q262. Propellor spins anti-clockwise from pilot's perspective, due to engine torque, when take-off power pplied during ground roll causes the plane to:

    • Roll right, creating more friction in right wheel, plane tends to yaw rightCorrect answer
    • Roll left, creating more friction in left wheel, plane tends to yaw left
    • Roll right, creating more friction in right wheel, plane tends to yaw left
    • Roll left, creating more friction in left wheel, plane tends to yaw right
    Why: Engine torque reacts opposite to the propeller, so an anti-clockwise prop rolls the aircraft right and presses the right wheel down harder. The greater rolling friction on that wheel yaws the nose to the right on the ground.

  263. Q263. What is the main cause of static electricity build up on an aircraft?

    • Charged air molecules attracted to the aircraft conducive surfaces
    • The movement of electrons between positive and negative conductorsCorrect answer
    • The friction on aircraft surfaces, produced by the movement of an aircraft through the air
    • The increased use of carbon composite material in aircraft construction
    Why: Static electricity accumulates as friction between the airframe and the air (and precipitation) strips and redistributes electrons, leaving the surfaces electrically charged. Static wicks then bleed this charge back to the atmosphere.

  264. Q264. Anti-skid braking systems:

    • Delay the application of braking until skidding has started
    • Release the brake pressure whenever a sensor detects that a wheel is beginning to skidCorrect answer
    • Reduce the amount of brake pressure the pilot is able to apply, thereby avoiding skidding
    • Delay the application of braking until the aircraft is slow enough to avoid skidding
    Why: An anti-skid system senses when a wheel is about to lock and momentarily releases brake pressure on that wheel, then reapplies it. Keeping the tyre rolling rather than skidding preserves braking and steering effectiveness.

  265. Q265. The change in voltage of AC electricity is often described as following a sine curve. This means the voltage:

    • Builds to a peak and remains constant until an electrical load is applied
    • Builds in one direction to a peak and then reverses to fall to a corresponding trough in the other directionCorrect answer
    • Varies up and down as electrical demand changes
    • Remains constant, but the current changes
    Why: Alternating current reverses direction cyclically: the voltage rises in one direction to a peak, falls back through zero, then builds to an equal peak in the opposite direction, tracing a sine wave. Hence the smooth crest-and-trough shape.

  266. Q266. What are three commonly used methods to measure temperature in light aircraft?

    • Bimetallic strips, resistance thermometer and thermocoupleCorrect answer
    • Mercury standpipe, magnetic thermometer and thermocouple
    • Bourdon tube, aneroid thermometer and thermocouple
    • Mercury thermometer, baffle plate and solid-state thermometer
    Why: Temperatures in light aircraft are commonly sensed three ways: a bimetallic strip that bends with temperature, a resistance thermometer whose resistance changes with temperature, and a thermocouple that produces a small voltage from a heated junction.

  267. Q267. The primary function of the ribs in within a wing is to:

    • Contain the fuel load
    • Provide the aerofoil cross-sectional shape
    • Stiffen the skin attached to themCorrect answer
    Why: Wing ribs give the aerofoil its cross-sectional shape and stiffen and support the skin attached to them, helping the skin carry loads without buckling. The spars, not the ribs, carry the main bending loads.

  268. Q268. During a turn the loads on an aircraft are increased. This is due to increased:

    • Pressure loads
    • Gust loads
    • Manoeuvring loadsCorrect answer
    • Weight loads
    Why: In a turn the wings must produce more lift than weight to provide the turning force, so the load factor rises. This extra structural loading from the manoeuvre itself is termed manoeuvring (or manoeuvre) load.

  269. Q269. Load factor “n” is practically measured as “g” for a given aeroplane. It can be positive or negative. Which option best defines the effect of “g” on stall speed (IAS)?

    • Stall speed with increase with positive “g” and decrease in negative “g”
    • An aeroplane will always stall at its basic stall speed, even when flying at less than one “g”
    • When manoeuvring at more than one “g” stall speed can be calculated by multiplying the basic stall speed by the square root of the “g” loadingCorrect answer
    • During a 60 degree banked level turn, extra power is used to offset the extra drag so is little effect on stall speed
    Why: Stall speed rises with load factor because the wing must support more than its weight. The stalling IAS increases in proportion to the square root of the g loading, so doubling the load factor raises stall speed by about 1.41 times.

  270. Q270. How does a pilot change a bank attitude?

    • By pitching on the latitude axis
    • By pitching on the longitudinal axis
    • By rolling on the normal axis
    • By rolling on the longitudinal axisCorrect answer
    Why: Bank is changed by rolling the aircraft about its longitudinal axis (the fore-and-aft axis through the nose and tail), using the ailerons. Rolling lowers one wing and raises the other to set the angle of bank.

  271. Q271. Which structural components absorb the most stress in flight?

    • Stingers, Fin, Ribs, Braces
    • Stringers, Spars, Ribs, BracesCorrect answer
    • Oleos, Ribs, Spars, Braces
    • Braces, Spars, Fin, Ribs
    Why: The structural members carrying the major flight loads are the stringers, spars, ribs and braces, which together form the load-bearing skeleton of wings and fuselage. They resist the bending, shear and torsion imposed in flight.

  272. Q272. The efficiency of a variable pitch propeller is:

    • 100% at full power on the brakes
    • Constant at a wide range of RPM and speeds
    • Optimum over a range of airspeedsCorrect answer
    Why: A variable (constant-speed) propeller can change its blade angle, so it maintains an efficient angle of attack across a wide range of airspeeds. A fixed-pitch propeller, by contrast, is only optimal at one speed/RPM combination.

  273. Q273. A turn rate indicator displays:

    • Angle of bank
    • Rate of bank
    • Yaw
    • Rate of turnCorrect answer
    Why: A turn indicator (turn-and-slip or turn coordinator) senses yaw rate and displays the rate of turn — for example the standard rate of 3° per second — not the angle of bank. The balance ball, separately, shows whether that turn is coordinated.

  274. Q274. Skin friction in the boundary layer is lowest in:

    • The turbulent flow
    • The wake after passing the airfoil
    • The laminar flowCorrect answer
    Why: Skin friction is lowest in laminar boundary-layer flow, where the air moves in smooth, ordered layers with little mixing. Turbulent flow, with its chaotic mixing, produces much higher surface friction drag.

  275. Q275. When an aircraft’s Centre of Gravity is too far aft:

    • Controllability of pitch improves
    • Longitudinal stability increases
    • Longitudinal stability decreasesCorrect answer
    Why: Moving the centre of gravity aft shortens the moment arm to the tailplane and reduces the restoring moment, so longitudinal (pitch) stability decreases. An excessively aft CG can make the aircraft dangerously unstable in pitch.

  276. Q276. Aspect ratio is:

    • Span over wing area, defined as a fraction
    • Span over chord, as a fractionCorrect answer
    • Chord over area, as a number
    • Span over chord, as a number
    Why: Aspect ratio is wingspan divided by mean chord, expressed as a ratio. A high aspect ratio (long, slender wing) reduces induced drag by limiting wingtip vortex strength.

  277. Q277. In an aircraft with a propeller spinning anti-clockwise from the pilot’s point of view, what will happen on take-off?

    • The torque produced tries to roll the aircraft to the left, putting stress on the left tyre and swinging the nose to the left
    • The torque produced tries to roll the aircraft to the right, putting stress on the right tyre and swinging the nose to the rightCorrect answer
    • The torque produced tries to roll the aircraft to the right, putting stress on the right tyre and swinging the nose to the left
    • The torque produced tries to roll the aircraft to the left, putting stress on the left tyre and swinging the aircraft to the right
    Why: Engine torque reacts opposite to the propeller, so an anti-clockwise prop rolls the aircraft right, loading the right tyre. The increased friction on that wheel swings the nose to the right during the take-off roll.

  278. Q278. If the baffle plate is blocked what happens to the engine?

    • Engines shuts immediately
    • Flow will go through pressure relief valveCorrect answer
    • The fuel pressure will force the fuel into the bypass valve
    Why: If the oil cooler's baffle/passage becomes blocked, oil pressure rises and the pressure relief valve opens to let oil bypass the restriction. This protects the system from over-pressure and keeps oil circulating.

  279. Q279. 2 batteries that has 12V and 50 Amps in a parallel circuit, what is the power capacity?

    • 12V 50 Am/h
    • 12V 100Am/hCorrect answer
    • 24V 50Am/h
    • 24V 100Am/h
    Why: Connecting batteries in parallel keeps the voltage the same but adds their capacities, so two 12V 50Ah batteries give 12V at 100Ah. Parallel connection increases available current/capacity, not voltage.

  280. Q280. Why is top rudder used to roll wings level after wing has stalled?

    • To avoid exceeding the G limits of the aircraft
    • To avoid exceeding the speed limit
    • To prevent autorotation and potentially a spinCorrect answer
    Why: After a wing-drop stall the wings are levelled with rudder, not aileron, because applying down-going aileron on the dropped wing would increase its angle of attack and could provoke autorotation and a spin. Rudder yaws the aircraft to raise the low wing safely.

  281. Q281. When there is an asymmetrical lowering of flaps what happens when the asymmetry is detected?

    • Flaps will be automatically be lowered fully
    • Flaps will be automatically be raised up automatically
    • Flaps will be set to half way position
    • Flaps will freeze at the asymmetrical positionCorrect answer
    Why: When asymmetry is detected, the flap system freezes both flaps in their current position rather than continuing to move. This prevents an increasing roll moment that an unchecked flap split would cause.

  282. Q282. Thrust and drag are:

    • Considered to act in opposite directionsCorrect answer
    • Equal magnitude in level flight
    • Always equal and opposite forces
    • Always constant values
    Why: Thrust and drag are considered to act in opposite directions along the flight path. They are only equal in magnitude in steady, unaccelerated flight; in a climb, descent or acceleration they differ.

  283. Q283. Shear stress in the airflow around the aerofoil is highest in the:

    • Laminar boundary flow
    • Wake behind the Aerofoil
    • Streamline flow ahead of the aerofoil
    • Turbulent boundary layer flowCorrect answer
    Why: Shear (friction) stress is greatest in the turbulent boundary layer, where energetic mixing between layers produces large velocity gradients at the surface. Laminar flow, being smooth and ordered, generates far less shear stress.

  284. Q284. Drag acts through:

    • Centre of Gravity
    • Centre of pressure
    • Aerodynamic centre
    • Relative to airflowCorrect answer
    Why: Drag acts parallel to, and in the same direction as, the relative airflow (directly opposing the aircraft's motion through the air). By definition it is the component of total reaction aligned with the airflow.

  285. Q285. When intakes for both pitot pressure and separate static pressure in combined into a unit, the unit is called:

    • Static head
    • Pitot headCorrect answer
    • Dynamic head
    • Pressure sensor
    Why: When the pitot and a separate static intake are combined into one unit, it is called a pitot (pitot-static) head. The single probe then provides both the total and static pressures for the instruments.

  286. Q286. A light aircraft with a nose-wheel is commonly referred to as:

    • Triangular aircraft
    • Nose-wheel aircraft
    • Tricycle aircraftCorrect answer
    Why: An aircraft with a nose wheel plus two main wheels has a three-point arrangement called a tricycle undercarriage. This layout gives good forward visibility and directional stability on the ground.

  287. Q287. A light aircraft nose wheel compared to the main gear, is designed:

    • Lighter, to accommodate pitching up during take-offCorrect answer
    • Heavier, to withstand nose-wheel first landings
    • Lighter, to improve directional stability
    Why: The nose wheel carries far less of the aircraft's weight than the main wheels, so it can be of lighter construction. It is designed to lift clear easily as the aircraft pitches up (rotates) for take-off.

  288. Q288. According to the lift formula, the stalling IAS:

    • CL is maximum at stalling IASCorrect answer
    • Stalling IAS is higher at altitude compared to mean sea level
    • Stalling IAS increases as ambient temperature increases
    Why: An aircraft stalls at its critical angle of attack, where the coefficient of lift (CL) reaches its maximum value, CLmax. From the lift formula, this CLmax corresponds to the lowest speed at which lift can equal weight, i.e. the stalling speed.

  289. Q289. How is impact pressure measured by the pilot tube?

    • Subtracting Static pressure from total pressureCorrect answer
    • Adding static and dynamic pressure
    • Subtracting static’s pressure from wind velocity
    • Adding static pressure to wind pressure
    Why: The pitot tube senses total (pitot) pressure, which is static pressure plus the dynamic pressure of the moving air. Subtracting the separately sensed static pressure leaves the dynamic (impact) pressure that the ASI uses to indicate speed.

  290. Q290. What is an important feature of the fuel gauge?

    • Must be in a position that can be seen clearly from the entire cockpitCorrect answer
    • Must have a white background so it can be easily seen
    • Must be designed in such a way that it can give accurate readings
    Why: A fuel gauge must be positioned so it can be read clearly from across the cockpit, ensuring the pilot can monitor fuel state at a glance. Clear visibility is essential for fuel management and safety.

  291. Q291. What must be taken note of when electronic flight display is being designed?

    • Must display safety parametersCorrect answer
    • Must be similar to standard cockpit layout
    • Must have the right colours to prevent distractions
    Why: An electronic flight display must present the safety-critical parameters the pilot needs to fly and monitor the aircraft. Displaying essential safety information clearly takes priority over cosmetic considerations.

  292. Q292. In a turn when climbing/descending, compared to an aircraft at straight and level:

    • When climbing, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to overbank Correct answer
    • When descending, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to overbank
    • When climbing, aircraft has a lower stall speed and would tend to return to wings level
    • When descending, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to return to wings level
    Why: In a climbing turn the higher wing travels faster and the bank tends to steepen (overbank), while the increased load factor in the turn raises the stall speed compared with straight-and-level flight. The pilot must guard against both tendencies.

  293. Q293. Which of the following is not an advantage of tricycle wheel over tailwheel:

    • Better forward visibility
    • Does not tip over easily
    • Better steering and control
    • Better control in crosswindCorrect answer
    Why: A tricycle undercarriage actually offers worse crosswind handling than a tailwheel in some respects, so improved crosswind control is NOT one of its advantages. Its real benefits are better forward visibility, ground steering and resistance to nosing over.

  294. Q294. When altitude increases:

    • IAS and TAS increase
    • IAS and TAS stay the same
    • IAS stay the same while TAS increaseCorrect answer
    Why: As altitude increases at a fixed indicated airspeed (IAS), the falling air density means the true airspeed (TAS) is higher than the IAS. The ASI reads dynamic pressure, so IAS can stay constant while TAS rises.

  295. Q295. Design of electronic flight instrument:

    • Must have safety features to alert pilotCorrect answer
    • Must be similar to cockpit layout
    • Few colors to avoid distractions
    Why: An electronic flight instrument must incorporate features that alert the pilot to abnormal or hazardous conditions. Built-in alerting safeguards ensure threats are brought to the pilot's attention promptly.

  296. Q296. CG position affecting stall speed:

    • Forward position will increase stall speedCorrect answer
    • Aft position will increase stall speed
    • Will not affect
    Why: A forward CG raises the stall speed: the tailplane must produce more downforce, so the wings must generate more lift, requiring a higher speed before the critical angle of attack is reached. An aft CG lowers stall speed.

  297. Q297. Indirect fuel injection, fuel pressure is adjusted by:

    • Throttle, based on altitude
    • Throttle, based on engineCorrect answer
    • Mixture lever
    Why: In an indirect (continuous) fuel injection system the fuel pressure is varied with engine speed via the throttle/metering unit, so fuel delivery matches airflow as RPM changes. This keeps the mixture appropriate across the power range.

  298. Q298. What does the pitot head measure?

    • Pitot pressureCorrect answer
    • Dynamic pressure
    • Static pressure
    • Total minus static pressure
    Why: The pitot head senses pitot (total) pressure, the sum of static pressure and the dynamic pressure of the oncoming air. The instruments then derive dynamic pressure by subtracting static pressure.

  299. Q299. When does instrument lag occur?

    • When area pressure change, or the aircraft is flown to area with pressure
    • In response to rapid pressure changesCorrect answer
    • If aircraft is flown with slip or skid
    • If the sea level pressure is not set in this subscale
    Why: Instrument lag occurs when pressures change rapidly, because air takes a finite time to flow through the lines and capsules to equalise. The reading then trails the actual rapid change momentarily.

  300. Q300. L/D is also called:

    • EfficiencyCorrect answer
    • Effectiveness
    • Lift capability
    Why: The lift/drag ratio is a direct measure of aerodynamic efficiency: the lift obtained for a given amount of drag. The angle of attack giving the best L/D ratio yields the most efficient flight.

  301. Q301. Which of the following do not have a separate tank:

    • Dry sump
    • Wet sumpCorrect answer
    • Wet tank
    • Dry tank
    Why: A wet sump engine stores its oil in the sump beneath the crankcase, so it has no separate oil tank. A dry sump, by contrast, scavenges oil to a separate external tank.

  302. Q302. When intakes for both pitot pressure and separate static pressure in combined into a unit, the unit is called:

    • Static head
    • Pitot headCorrect answer
    • Dynamic head
    • Pressure sensor
    Why: When the pitot and a separate static source are combined into one unit, it is called a pitot (pitot-static) head. The combined probe supplies both pressures to the instruments.

  303. Q303. Which of the following is not an advantage of a dual ignition system:

    • Cheaper to maintainCorrect answer
    • Increased efficiency
    • Safer to use
    • Smoother combustion
    Why: All listed items except lower maintenance cost are genuine advantages of a dual ignition system. Two independent ignition systems and two plugs per cylinder improve safety, combustion smoothness and efficiency, but they add to maintenance rather than reduce it.

  304. Q304. What is the characteristic of a tapered wing?

    • Tip is elliptical in shape
    • Root chord is smaller than tip chord
    • Tip chord is smaller than root chordCorrect answer
    • Chord incidence at root is less that chord incidence at tip
    Why: A tapered wing has a tip chord smaller than its root chord, so the wing narrows towards the tip. This planform reduces structural weight and induced drag compared with a constant-chord wing.

  305. Q305. Best L/D ratio occur at:

    • Max cruise speed
    • Minimum drag speedCorrect answer
    • Lowest safe speed above stall
    • Stall AOA
    Why: The best lift/drag ratio occurs at the minimum drag speed, where total drag (induced plus parasite) is least for the lift produced. This speed gives the best glide range and greatest aerodynamic efficiency.

  306. Q306. What is blade twist on a propellor?

    • Blade angle smaller at tip than hubCorrect answer
    • Blade angle smaller at hub than at tip
    • Propellor able to twist at its hub
    Why: Propeller blades are twisted so the blade angle is finer at the tip than at the hub. Because the tip moves faster than the root, this keeps the angle of attack and thrust reasonably constant along the blade.

  307. Q307. In an aircraft, a propellor rotates anti-clockwise as seen by the pilot. How will the prop torque reaction affect the aircraft on a take-off roll at high power?

    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing rightCorrect answer
    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing left
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing right
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing left
    Why: Engine torque reacts opposite to propeller rotation, so an anti-clockwise prop rolls the aircraft right and loads the right tyre. The increased friction there yaws the nose to the right on the take-off roll.

  308. Q308. Which option best describes the distribution of wake turbulence behind aircraft?

    • Less intense at higher altitude due to air being less dense
    • In still air, wake turbulence drifts upwards and outwards, causing pilots to avoid flying behind and above other aircrafts
    • It is strongest immediately behind aircraftCorrect answer
    • Most intense a few miles behind a large aircraft
    Why: Wake-turbulence wingtip vortices are strongest immediately behind the generating aircraft and decay with time and distance as they dissipate. The hazard is therefore greatest close behind, especially behind heavy, slow, clean aircraft.

  309. Q309. During a turn the loads on an aircraft are increased. This is due to an increase in:

    • Pressure loads
    • Gust loads
    • Manoeuvring loadsCorrect answer
    • Weight loads
    Why: Turning increases the load factor because the wings must produce extra lift to turn, so the structural loads rise. This additional loading caused by the manoeuvre is termed manoeuvring load.

  310. Q310. How does a pilot change a bank attitude?

    • By pitching on the latitude axis
    • By pitching on the longitudinal axis
    • By rolling on the normal axis
    • By rolling on the longitudinal axisCorrect answer
    Why: Bank attitude is altered by rolling about the longitudinal axis using the ailerons. This raises one wing and lowers the other to establish the desired angle of bank.

  311. Q311. A turn rate indicator displays:

    • Angle of bank
    • Rate of bank
    • Yaw
    • Rate of turnCorrect answer
    Why: A turn (rate) indicator displays the aircraft's rate of turn, such as the standard rate-one turn of three degrees per second. It indicates how fast the heading is changing, not the bank angle directly.

  312. Q312. Skin friction in the boundary layer is lowest in:

    • The turbulent flow
    • The wake after passing the aerofoil
    • The laminar flowCorrect answer
    Why: Skin friction is lowest in laminar boundary-layer flow, where the air streams in smooth parallel layers with minimal mixing. Turbulent flow, with its vigorous mixing, produces higher friction drag.

  313. Q313. Drag acts:

    • Through the centre of gravity
    • Through the centre of pressure
    • Through the aerodynamic centre
    • Relative to airflowCorrect answer
    Why: Drag acts parallel to the relative airflow, directly opposing the aircraft's path through the air. It is the component of the total aerodynamic reaction aligned with the airflow.

  314. Q314. Brake system has:

    • No system pressure gauge and low-pressure warning lightCorrect answer
    • Low-pressure warning light
    • System pressure gauge
    • Both system pressure gauge and low-pressure warning light
    Why: A simple light-aircraft brake system typically has neither a system pressure gauge nor a low-pressure warning light; the pilot judges serviceability by brake feel and by checking the reservoir fluid level. Loss of fluid is detected visually, not by cockpit instrumentation.

  315. Q315. Water present in AVGAS may:

    • Appear as small globules at the bottomCorrect answer
    • Appear as small globules on top of fuel
    • Mix with fuel causing it to look opaque and milky
    • Mix with fuel causing it to become gelatinous
    Why: AVGAS is less dense than and immiscible with water, so any water contamination sinks and collects as clear globules at the bottom of the fuel sample. This is why fuel drains are taken from the lowest point of the tank.

  316. Q316. Hydraulic Fluid:

    • Acrylic non-flammable fluid
    • Vegetable oil-based fluid
    • Fire resistant polyalphaolefin fluid
    • Synthetic phosphate ester-basedCorrect answer
    Why: Aircraft hydraulic systems commonly use a synthetic phosphate-ester-based fluid, chosen for its fire resistance and stable properties over a wide temperature range. It is not a vegetable or mineral oil.

  317. Q317. During a stall, aircraft sink with airflow coming from:

    • Below, maintaining stalling AOACorrect answer
    • Above, maintain stalling AOA
    • Below, decreasing AOA
    • Above, decreasing AOA
    Why: In a stall the aircraft sinks, so the relative airflow comes increasingly from below. This rising airflow tends to maintain the high (stalling) angle of attack, which is why the stall persists until the nose is lowered to reduce the angle of attack.

  318. Q318. Process when conductor passes through magnetic field:

    • Electromagnetic conduction
    • Electromagnetic impedance
    • Electromagnetic reactance
    • Electromagnetic inductionCorrect answer
    Why: Generating a voltage by moving a conductor through a magnetic field (or changing the field through a coil) is called electromagnetic induction. This is the principle behind generators, alternators and magnetos.

  319. Q319. The density of AVGAS is:

    • Equal to that of water
    • Slight more than that of water
    • Significantly more than that of water
    • Significantly less than that of waterCorrect answer
    Why: AVGAS has a specific gravity around 0.72, significantly less than water. Being lighter and immiscible, water contamination settles below the fuel, allowing it to be drained off.

  320. Q320. On a three-pointer altimeter, the long medium thick pointer shows:

    • Tens of feet
    • HundredsCorrect answer
    • Thousands
    • Tens of thousands
    Why: On a three-pointer altimeter the medium-length, thicker pointer indicates hundreds of feet. The longest thin pointer shows tens of thousands and the short pointer shows thousands.

  321. Q321. Airspeed corrected for position (pressure) error is also known as:

    • Indicated Airspeed
    • Calibrated AirspeedCorrect answer
    • Equivalent Airspeed
    • Ground Speed
    Why: Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position (pressure) error gives calibrated airspeed (CAS). Further correction for compressibility and density yields equivalent and then true airspeed.

  322. Q322. What should you do if an oil pressure rise is not indicated within the specified time after engine starts?

    • Input an entry in the maintenance record after the flight
    • Shut downCorrect answer
    • Increase RPM to increase oil output
    • Turn on the electrical oil boost pump
    Why: If oil pressure does not rise within the time stated in the manual after starting, the engine should be shut down immediately. Running without oil pressure risks rapid, severe engine damage from lack of lubrication.

  323. Q323. What is the typical position indicating system for electrically controlled flaps?

    • Sensor on servo motor measures running time which is converted to flap position and electrically transmits to position indicator
    • Sensor is mechanically connected to drive pulley and electrically transmits to position indicator
    • Sensor is mechanically connected to wing flap and mechanically transmits to position indicator
    • Sensor on flap selection lever senses flap position and electrically transmits to position indicatorCorrect answer
    Why: In a typical electric flap system a sensor on the flap selector lever detects the selected position and transmits it electrically to the cockpit indicator. This shows the pilot the commanded flap setting.

  324. Q324. In a turn when climbing/descending, compared to an aircraft at straight and level:

    • When climbing, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to overbankCorrect answer
    • When descending, aircraft has a lower stall speed and would tend to overbank
    • When climbing, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to return to wings level
    • When descending, aircraft has a higher stall speed and would tend to return to wings level
    Why: In a climbing turn the raised outer wing travels faster, tending to steepen the bank (overbank), while the increased load factor raises the stall speed relative to straight-and-level flight. Both effects demand careful handling.

  325. Q325. Before aircraft can be dynamically stable, it must be:

    • Trimmed out
    • Statically stableCorrect answer
    • Clean configuration
    • In a straight and level flight
    Why: An aircraft must first be statically stable, meaning it initially tends to return towards its trimmed state after a disturbance, before dynamic stability (how that motion decays over time) is even possible. Static stability is the prerequisite.

  326. Q326. With regards to pressure, which one of the following is correct?

    • With increasing altitude, decreasing temperature has a greater effect on density than decreasing pressure
    • Pressure increases with increasing altitude as a function of decreasing temperature
    • With increasing altitude, decreasing pressure has a greater effect on density than decreasing temperatureCorrect answer
    • Pressure decreases until the tropopause, after which it remains constant
    Why: With increasing altitude the fall in pressure has a greater effect on air density than the accompanying fall in temperature, so density decreases overall with height. Density depends on both, but the pressure drop dominates.

  327. Q327. Downwash...

    • Increases with increasing AOACorrect answer
    • Reduces with increasing AOA
    • Not affected by airspeed or AOA
    • Increases with TAS
    Why: Downwash increases as angle of attack increases, because a wing at higher AOA deflects the air downward more strongly. This greater downwash also increases induced drag.

  328. Q328. In an aircraft, a propellor rotates anti-clockwise as seen by the pilot. How will the prop torque reaction affect the aircraft on a take-off roll at high power?

    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing rightCorrect answer
    • Aircraft will tend to roll right, increase in rolling resistance on the right of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing left
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing right
    • Aircraft will tend to roll left, increase in rolling resistance on the left of undercarriage, causing the aircraft to swing left
    Why: Engine torque reacts opposite to propeller rotation, so an anti-clockwise prop rolls the aircraft right and presses down the right tyre. The added rolling friction there yaws the nose right during the take-off roll.

  329. Q329. What are the common methods of measuring fuel flow?

    • Magnetic Resistance, Float
    • Venturi, Baffle Plate
    • Suction Pressure, Baffle PlateCorrect answer
    • Float, Venturi
    Why: Fuel flow in light aircraft is commonly measured by sensing suction (pressure drop) or by a baffle/vane plate deflected by the flowing fuel. Both relate the measured effect to the rate of fuel flow.

  330. Q330. What is the error caused by small inaccuracies in sensing total and/or static pressure at separate vents?

    • Calibration
    • Compressibility
    • PressureCorrect answer
    • Density
    Why: Small inaccuracies in sensing total or static pressure at the vents, due to local airflow disturbance at the probe location, are termed pressure (position) error. It stems from where the sensing points sit in the airflow.

  331. Q331. What is the most ineffective way to cool the engine?

    • Increase Power, Decrease AirspeedCorrect answer
    • Decrease Power, Increase Airspeed
    • Increase Power, Increase Airspeed
    • Decrease Power, Decrease Airspeed
    Why: Cooling is least effective when power is increased while airspeed is reduced: more heat is produced just as the cooling airflow over the engine falls. High power at low speed (as in a steep climb) gives the worst cooling.

  332. Q332. What would low grade fuel cause?

    • Increased risk of detonationCorrect answer
    • Decrease corrosion of exhaust valves and seals
    • Decreased fuel consumption
    • Increased risk of spark plug fouling
    Why: Using fuel of a lower grade (octane) than specified increases the risk of detonation, because the fuel ignites too readily under the high pressures and temperatures in the cylinder. Detonation can cause serious engine damage.

  333. Q333. How does the linear motion of piston get converted into rotary motion?

    • Lifters to Crankshaft
    • Valves to Crankpin
    • Cylinder to Budgeon Pin
    • Connecting Rods to CrankshaftCorrect answer
    Why: The piston's up-and-down (reciprocating) motion is turned into rotary motion by the connecting rods driving the crankshaft. The offset crankpins convert linear thrust into rotation of the shaft.

  334. Q334. Propeller Torque is greatest when?

    • High Power, Low AirspeedCorrect answer
    • Lower Power, High Airspeed
    • Low Power, Low Airspeed
    • High Power, High Airspeed
    Why: Propeller torque reaction is greatest at high power and low airspeed, such as during the take-off roll and initial climb. High power means large reaction torque, while low speed gives little aerodynamic damping, so the effect is most pronounced.

  335. Q335. What is an important design consideration for fuel gauge indicator?

    • Easy to read from anywhere in the cockpitCorrect answer
    • Have a selectable unit of measurement
    • Indicator displays accurate fuel readings
    • Background white
    Why: A fuel gauge must be easy to read from across the cockpit so the pilot can monitor fuel state quickly and reliably. Clear, accessible indication supports good fuel management.

  336. Q336. What is the oil reservoir under the engine?

    • SumpCorrect answer
    • Gallery
    • Can
    • Barrel
    Why: The oil reservoir formed beneath the engine crankcase is called the sump. In a wet-sump engine this is where the oil supply is stored and drawn from by the oil pump.

  337. Q337. Engine Carburetor operates efficiently at?

    • Sea LevelCorrect answer
    • 5,000ft above SL
    • 15,00ft above SL
    • 5,000ft above SL
    Why: A carburettor is calibrated to meter the correct mixture at sea-level air density. As altitude increases the air thins, so the mixture must be leaned to compensate for the carburettor's sea-level calibration.

  338. Q338. What is an indication of a faulty oil gauge?

    • Loss of oil pressure and Loss of oil temperature
    • Loss of oil pressure and oil temperature constant over a period of timeCorrect answer
    • Constant oil temperature and pressure
    • Loss of oil pressure and an increase in oil temperature
    Why: A faulty oil pressure gauge is indicated by a loss of indicated oil pressure while oil temperature stays normal/constant. Genuine oil loss would show falling pressure together with rising temperature, so unchanged temperature points to a gauge fault.

  339. Q339. Starter warning light:

    • Extinguishes immediately after pilot releases the starter keyCorrect answer
    • Illuminates for a few seconds after engine start
    • Illuminates if the battery has an insufficient charge
    • Extinguishes as soon as the engine is energised
    Why: The starter warning light should extinguish the instant the pilot releases the starter, confirming the starter has disengaged. A light that stays on warns that the starter is still engaged, which would damage it.

  340. Q340. What is the function of the pressure relief valve in an engine oil system?

    • Trap small metallic particles for analysis
    • Open and relieve oil P at a predetermined levelCorrect answer
    • Permit oil to bypass if the filter is clogged
    • Opens when oil is too cool and thick to pass through to the
    Why: The oil pressure relief valve opens at a preset pressure to bleed excess oil back, capping the system pressure at a safe maximum. This protects oil seals and components from over-pressure, especially with cold, thick oil.

  341. Q341. What causes drift in a gyroscopic heading indicator?

    • Small accumulated errors over a period of time due to imperfect balancing of the instrumentCorrect answer
    • Error that causes indicator to read wrongly in a prolonged turn
    • An apparent drift which is greatest over equatorial areas. Can be ignored
    • Caused by a dip, a downward slope due to the earth’s magnetic field
    Why: A directional gyro drifts because tiny imperfections, such as friction and imbalance in the gimbals, cause small errors to accumulate over time (real drift/wander). This is why the heading indicator must be realigned with the compass periodically.

  342. Q342. Function of the cowling?

    • Direct cooling of air while minimising dragCorrect answer
    • Limit the amount of cooling air available to the engine and maintain operating temperature
    • Ensure steady and progressive changes in temperature to the engine
    • Retain heat of engine within a protected space
    Why: The engine cowling is shaped to duct cooling air over the engine while presenting a smooth, low-drag exterior. It balances effective cooling against minimum aerodynamic drag.

  343. Q343. Airspeed corrected for position?

    • Calibrated Airspeed (CAS)Correct answer
    • Indicated Airspeed (IAS)
    • Equivalent Airspeed (EAS)
    • Rectified Airspeed
    Why: Indicated airspeed corrected for position (pressure) error becomes calibrated airspeed (CAS). It removes the error caused by imperfect pressure sensing at the static and pitot sources.

  344. Q344. Flight deck warning system is used to alert pilots to?

    • Attract attention to abnormal or emergency situationsCorrect answer
    • Keep pilots awake during long night operations
    • Alert pilot to more important work to be done
    • Remind pilots of a specific function
    Why: A flight-deck warning system exists to draw the crew's attention to abnormal or emergency conditions so they can respond promptly. Its purpose is alerting, not routine information.

  345. Q345. What is the caution range on the ASI coloured in?

    • Green
    • White
    • YellowCorrect answer
    • Red
    Why: On the airspeed indicator the yellow arc marks the caution range, between the normal operating limit and the never-exceed speed (VNE). Flight in this band is permitted only in smooth air and with caution.

  346. Q346. What does the instrument case of a VSI contain?

    • Perforated Capsule
    • 2 Capsule expanding at different rates
    • Flexible Diaphragm inside a rigid capsule
    • Flexible Capsule and Metering UnitCorrect answer
    Why: The vertical speed indicator contains a flexible capsule connected to the static line, plus a calibrated metering (restrictor) unit that creates a controlled pressure lag. The pressure difference across the capsule indicates rate of climb or descent.

  347. Q347. Idle cut-off valve is located?

    • Carburettor Correct answer
    • Fuel Pump
    • Lowest point in the fuel line
    • Fuel selector
    Why: The idle cut-off function is part of the mixture control and its valve is located in the carburettor (or fuel control unit). Moving the mixture to idle cut-off shuts off the fuel there to stop the engine.

  348. Q348. Magnetic item is placed near the compass, error induced is called?

    • DeviationCorrect answer
    • Variation
    • Turning Error
    • Parallax Error
    Why: A magnetic object near the compass distorts the local field and induces an error called deviation. Deviation is compensated by the compass swing and noted on a correction card; it differs from variation, which is a property of the Earth's field.

  349. Q349. At a constant throttle setting, when altitude increases, the air entering the carburettor?

    • Constant, weight and density decreasingCorrect answer
    • Increase, weight and density increase
    • Decrease, weight and density decrease
    • Decrease, weight and density increase
    Why: At a fixed throttle setting the engine draws roughly the same volume of air as altitude increases, but because the air is thinner that volume contains less weight and density of air (and oxygen). The mixture must therefore be leaned with height.

  350. Q350. How do you check the serviceability of the suction?

    • 3-4 in hgCorrect answer
    • >8 in hg
    • <3 in hg
    • 6-8 in hg
    Why: Vacuum (suction) driven gyro instruments are checked against a suction gauge reading, with the normal serviceable range being about 3 to 4 inches of mercury. A reading outside this band indicates a problem with the vacuum supply.

  351. Q351. Critical stall warning warns pilot of?

    • Aircraft stalled and about to spin
    • Impending stallCorrect answer
    • Horizontal stabilizer stalled
    • Aircraft stalled
    Why: A stall warning device warns of an impending stall, activating a few knots before the critical angle of attack is reached. The margin gives the pilot time to lower the nose and recover before the wing actually stalls.

  352. Q352. Before an aircraft can be dynamically stable?

    • Statically stableCorrect answer
    • In S&L flight
    • Trimmed
    • Clean Configuration
    Why: Static stability is the precondition for dynamic stability: an aircraft must first tend to return towards equilibrium after a disturbance before the way that returning motion decays can even be considered. Without static stability there can be no dynamic stability.

  353. Q353. Boundary Layer flow changes from laminar to turbulent

    • Separation
    • TransitionCorrect answer
    • Critical
    • Diversion
    Why: The boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent flow at the transition point. Downstream of this point the flow is turbulent, with greater energy and higher skin friction.

  354. Q354. Ice on an aerofoil have an effect of?

    • Decreased stall speed, reduce stall severity
    • Decrease stall AOA, decreased stall severity
    • Increased stall speed, change in stall characteristicCorrect answer
    • Increase stall AOA, Increase stall severity
    Why: Ice on an aerofoil disrupts the airflow and adds weight and roughness, raising the stalling speed and altering (worsening) the stall characteristics. The wing can then stall at a lower angle of attack and more abruptly than normal.

  355. Q355. Rotation about the longitudinal axis?

    • Pitch
    • RollCorrect answer
    • Yaw
    • Bank
    Why: Rotation about the longitudinal axis (the fore-and-aft axis through the aircraft) is called roll, controlled by the ailerons. Pitch is about the lateral axis and yaw about the normal (vertical) axis.

  356. Q356. What does Ground effect have on take-off?

    • Increase Total Drag
    • Decreased Rate of Acceleration
    • Decreased Induced DragCorrect answer
    • Decrease Lift
    Why: In ground effect, near the surface the wingtip vortices and downwash are reduced, which lowers the induced drag. The aircraft therefore accelerates and lifts off more readily close to the ground.

  357. Q357. Symptoms of incipient stage of spin?

    • Uncontrollable yaw and roll
    • Nose down
    • Nose up
    • Violent buffering of controlsCorrect answer
    Why: At the incipient (early) stage of a spin the aircraft is stalled and the controls and airframe buffet heavily as the stalled, autorotating wings shed turbulent airflow. This pronounced buffet is a key symptom before the spin fully develops.

  358. Q358. What are the components of simple hydraulic systems?

    • Reservoir, pump, trim valve, actuators
    • Reservoir, pump, selector valve, actuators
    • Force link, pump, trim valve, actuators
    • Reservoir, force link, selector valve, actuatorCorrect answer
    Why: A simple hydraulic system comprises a fluid reservoir, a pump to pressurise the fluid, a selector valve to direct it, and an actuator (jack) to do the work. The pressurised fluid drives the actuator to move the component.

  359. Q359. How does a hydraulic system work?

    • Reservoir displaces fluid which acts on a pump
    • Pump displaces air which acts on a piston
    • Pump displaces fluid which acts on the reservoir
    • Pump displaces fluid which acts on a pistonCorrect answer
    Why: A hydraulic system works by a pump forcing fluid against a piston in an actuator; because liquid is virtually incompressible, the pressure is transmitted to move the piston and operate the load. Fluid pressure is converted into mechanical movement.

  360. Q360. Which airspeed requires OAT to calculate?

    • IAS
    • CAS
    • TASCorrect answer
    • GS
    Why: True airspeed depends on air density, which is set by pressure and temperature, so calculating TAS from CAS requires the outside air temperature (OAT) together with altitude. IAS and CAS do not need OAT.

  361. Q361. Which of the following are common battery types?

    • Lead acid and lithium
    • Lead acid and NiCdCorrect answer
    • Alkaline and Zinc carbon
    • Lithium and Zinc carbon
    Why: The common aircraft battery types are the lead-acid battery and the nickel-cadmium (NiCd) battery. Each stores electrical energy chemically to supply DC power and to start the engine.

  362. Q362. AC system:

    • Voltage rises to a peak then falls to a troughCorrect answer
    • Voltage at peak until circuit is broken
    • Constant voltage, but current changes on electrical load
    Why: In an AC system the voltage continuously rises to a peak in one direction, falls back through zero to a trough in the opposite direction, and repeats, following a sine wave. The polarity alternates rather than staying constant.

  363. Q363. Advantage of AC compared to DC in large aircraft:

    • Lighter weight of AC componentsCorrect answer
    • Less variation of output with altitude change
    • AC produces more output due to thicker coils
    • AC is needed for aircraft lights
    Why: A key advantage of AC over DC in large aircraft is that AC equipment, especially transformers and motors, is lighter for the same power. AC also transmits more efficiently and is easily transformed between voltages.

  364. Q364. Training aircraft require good low speed handling and stall characteristics. Which is least likely to be a good choice?

    • Constant chord (straight) with wing fence and vortex generators
    • Constant chord (straight) with aerodynamic twist (washout)
    • Slightly swept wing with frise-type aileronsCorrect answer
    • Tapered wings with geometrical twist
    Why: A slightly swept wing with frise ailerons is the least suitable for a trainer needing benign stall behaviour, because swept wings tend to stall first at the tips, causing wing drop and degraded aileron control. Straight or washed-out wings give gentler, more predictable stalls.

  365. Q365. During pre-flight inspection, a static discharge probe is observed to be charred. The best course of action to take is to:

    • Compared the charred probe with others, if they are in similar condition, continue with the flight
    • Request maintenance crew to checkCorrect answer
    • If charring is not significant, continue the flight and report after flight
    • Replace with new static discharge probe
    Why: A charred static discharge probe (wick) indicates it may no longer be bleeding static charge correctly, so the correct action is to have maintenance inspect it. The pilot should not simply assess and dispatch it themselves.

  366. Q366. Which is the most likely to increase the chance of a stall during a climbing or descending turn?

    • Maintain IAS, extend flaps
    • Increase IAS, extend flaps
    • Maintain IAS, increase bank angleCorrect answer
    • Increase IAS, decrease bank angle
    Why: Increasing bank angle while holding the same IAS raises the load factor, which raises the stall speed and thus makes a stall more likely in a climbing or descending turn. Steepening the turn without adding speed erodes the stall margin.

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